IBSAT

Practice Test – 7

Quantitative Ability


 

 

1.                  If x < z and x < y, which of the following statements is/are always true?  Assume x ≥ 0.

I.      y < z

II.    x < yz

III.  2x < y + z

a.       Only I

b.      Only II

c.       Only III

d.      II and III only

2.                  How many squares with sides ½ inch long are needed to cover a rectangle which is 6 feet long and 4 feet wide?

a.       24

b.      96

c.       3,456

d.      13,824

3.                  A worker is paid Rs.x for the first 8 hours he works each day.  He is paid Rs.y per hour for each hour he works in excess of 8 hours.  During one week he works 8 hours on Monday, 11 hours on Tuesday, 9 hours on Wednesday, 10 hours on Thursday, and 9 hours on Friday.  What is his average daily wage in rupees for the five day week?

a.       x + 7/5 y

b.      2x + y

c.       5x + 8y / 5

d.      8x ÷ (7/5)y

4.                  If x + y + z + w = 15, then at least k of the numbers x, y, z, w must be positive where k is

a.       0.

b.      1

c.       2

d.      3

5.                  If the length of a rectangle is increased by 11% and the width remains the same, then the area of the rectangle is increased by

a.       11%

b.      21%

c.       110%

d.      111%

6.                  If x – 2 is less than y then

a.       X and y are positive

b.      Y is less than x + 2

c.       Y is greater than x

d.      Y + 2 is greater than x

7.                  If x is an integer and less than 2, which of the following statements is/are always true?

I.    x is negative

II.  x is positive

III. 2x is greater than or equal to x

IV  x2 is greater than or equal to x

a.       III only

b.      IV only

c.       I and III only

d.      I, III and IV only

8.                  Which of the following is in ascending order?

a.       5/7, 7/8, 9,11

b.      7/8, 5/9, 9/11

c.       5/7, 9/11, 7/8

d.      7/8, 5/7, 9/11

9.                  If the ratio of the radii of two circle is 3 to 2, then the ratio of the areas of the two circles is

a.       2 to 3

b.      3 to 4

c.       4 to 9

d.      9 to 4

10.              Which of the following is equal to 456(72) + 28(456)?

a.       (72) (456+28)

b.      (456) (72+28)

c.       (456+28) (72+456)

d.      (456+72) (28+456)

11.              Which of the following equals the ratio of 2 ½ to 3 ½ ?

a.       2 to 3

b.      5 to 7

c.       3 to 2

d.      7 to 5

12.              An unloaded truck travels 10 milts on a gallon of gas.  When the same truck is loaded it travels only 85% as far on a gallon of gas.  How many gallons of gas will the loaded truck use to travel 50 miles?

a.       5.00

b.      5.67

c.       5.88

d.      6.02

13.              How many of the integers between 110 and 120 are prime numbers?

a.       0

b.      1

c.       2

d.      3

14.              If the product of 3 consecutive integers is 120, then the sum of the integers is

a.       9

b.      12

c.       14

d.      15

15.              A clothing manufacturer has determined that she can sell 100 suits a week at a selling price of Rs.200 each.  For each rise of Rs.4 in the selling price she will sell 2 less suits a week.  If she sells the suits for Rs.x each, how many rupees will she receive from sales of the suits in a week?

a.       x2/2

b.      200 – x/2

c.       50x + x2/4

d.      200x – x2/2

16.              A trip takes 6 hours to complete.  After traveling ¼ of an hour.  1 1/8 hours and 2 1/3 hours, how much time does one need to complete the trip?

a.       1 1/12 hours

b.      2 hours 17 ½ minutes

c.       2 hours 5 minutes

d.      2 ½ hours

17.              If the ratio of the areas of 2 squares is

a.       1 : 2

b.      1 : √2

c.       √2 : 1

d.      2 : 1

e.        

18.              A company issued 1,00,000 shares.  In 1994, each whare was worth Rs. 122.50.  In 1997 each share was worth Rs.111.10.  How much less were the 1,00,000 shares worth in 1997 than in 1994?

a.       Rs.1,14,000

b.      Rs.11,00,040

c.       Rs.11,40,000

d.      Rs.11,40,00,000

 

19.              If 3x – 2y = 8, then 4y – 6x is:

a.       -16

b.      -8

c.       8

d.      16

 

 

20.              There are three types of tickets available for a concert; special, which cost Rs.12 each; balcony which cost Rs.9 each; and box, which cost Rs.25 each.  There were A special/tickets.  B balcony tickets, and C box tickets sold for the concert, which of the following expressions gives the percentage of ticket proceeds due to the sale of special tickets?

a.      

b.     

c.      

d.     

21.              If two identical rectangles R1 and R2 form a square when placed next to each other, and the length of R1 is X times the width of R1 then X is

a.       1

b.      3/2

c.       5/4

d.      2

22.              The next number in the geometric progression5, 10, 20 is

a.       25

b.      30

c.       35

d.      40

23.              A manufacturer of Jam wants to make a profit of Rs.7500 when he sells 300 jars of jam. It costs Rs.65 each to make the first 100 jars of jam and Rs.55 to make each jar after the first 100.  What price should he charge for the 300 jars of jam?

a.       Rs.7,500

b.      Rs.17,500

c.       Rs.22,500

d.      Rs.25,000

24.              A car traveled 75% of the way from town A to town B by traveling for T hours at an average speed of V mph.  The car travels at an average speed of S mph for the remaining part of the trip.  Which of the following expression represents the time the car traveled at S mph?

a.       VS/4T

b.      VT/S

c.       VT/3S

d.      4VT/3S

25.              The operator * applied to a number gives as its result 20 subtracted from thrice the number.  What is *(*9)?

a.       1

b.      7

c.       8

d.      9

26.              36 identical chairs must be arranged in rows with the same number of chairs in each row.  Each row must contain at least three chairs and there must be at least three rows.  A row is parallel to the front of the room.  How many different arrangements are possible?

a.       2

b.      4

c.       5

d.      6

27.              If 0.4% of x is 0.05, then x is

a.       200

b.      125

c.       20

d.      12.5

28.              The ratio of chickers to pigs to horse on a farm can be expressed as the triple ratio 20:4:6.  If there are 120 chickens on the farms, then the number of horses on the farm is

a.       4

b.      6

c.       24

d.      36

29.              Ram’s salary is currently Rs.35,000.  When Ram was employed 5 years ago, his salary ws Rs.10,000.  By what percentage has Ram’s salary increased since he was employed?

a.       28

b.      50

c.       70

d.      250

30.              What is the area of the shaded region ?  The radius of the outer circle is a and the radius of each of the circles inside the large circle is a/3

a.      

b.     

c.      

d.     

31.              If x, y, z are chosen from the three numbers -3, ½ and 2, what is the largest possible value of the expression .

a.       -3/4

b.      16

c.       24

d.      36

32.              In Motor City 90% of the population own a car.  15% own a motorcycle, and everybody owns one or the other or both.  What is the percentage of motorcycle owners who own cars?

a.       5%

b.      15%

c.       33 1/3%

d.      50%

33.              A’s weight is 140% of B’s weight.  C’s weight is 90% of D’s weight.  D weights twice as much as B.  What percentage of A’s weight is C’s weight

a.       64 2/7

b.      77 7/9

c.       90

d.      128 4/7

34.              Towns A and C are connected by a straight highway which is 60 miles long.  The straight-line distance between town A and town B is 50 miles, and the straight-line distance from town B to town C is 50 miles.  How many miles is it from town B to the point on the highway connecting town B to town C is 50 miles.  How many miles is it from town B to the point on the highway connecting towns A and C which is closest to town B?

a.       30

b.      30 √2

c.       40

d.      50

35.              A club has 8 male and 8 female members.  The club is choosing a committee of 6 members.  The committee must have 3 male and 3 female members.  In how many way a committee can be formed?

a.       1,12,893

b.      3,136

c.       720

d.      112

36.              A motorcycle costs Rs.25,000 when it is brand new.  At the end of each year it is worth 4/5 of what it was at the beginning of the year. What is the motorcycle worth when it is 3 years old?

a.       Rs.10,000

b.      Rs.12,000

c.       Rs.12,800

d.      Rs.13,400

37.              It costs Rs.80 for bus to make a 20 mile trip and Rs.115 for a car.  If three buses and four cars make such trips, what is the average cost per mile?

a.       Rs.5

b.      Rs.15

c.       Rs.18

d.      Rs.20

38.              In a group of people solicited by  a charity, 30% contributed Rs.40, 45% contributed Rs.20, and the rest contributed Rs.2.  If the charity received a total of Rs.300 from the people who contributed Rs.2, how much was contributed by the entire group?

a.       Rs.1,200

b.      Rs.2,400

c.       Rs.12,600

d.      Rs.12,900

39.              Successive discounts of 20% and 15% are equal to a single discount of

a.       30%

b.      32%

c.       34%

d.      35%

40.              A wall with no windows is 11 feet high and 20 feet long.  A large roll of wallpaper costs Rs.250 and will cover 60 square feet of wall.  A small roll of wallpaper cost Rs.60 and will cover 10 square feet of wall.  What is the least cost for enough wallpaper to cover the wall?

a.       Rs.750

b.      Rs.990

c.       Rs.1000

d.      Rs.1200

41.              A hen lays 7 ½ dozen eggs during the summer.  There are 93 days in the summer and it costs Rs.1,00 to feed the hen for the summer.  How much does it cost in food for elach eff produced?

a.       Rs.10

b.      Rs.11 1/9

c.       Rs.12 3/13

d.      Rs.13 1/13

42.              It takes Pran 20 minutes to inspect a car.  Chopra only needs 18 minutes to inspect a car.  If they both start inspecting cars at 8.00 A.M. what is the first time they will finish inspecting a car at the same time?

a.       9:30 A.M.

b.      9:42 A.M.

c.       10:00 A.M.

d.      11:00 A.M.

43.              If y = 3/(x2) + x and x = 3, then y is

a.       2/3

b.      10/3

c.       12/3

d.      18/3

44.              Car Production at Plant T for One Week in 1996

 

 

Number of cars produced

Total daily wages

MONDAY

900

Rs.30,000

TUESDAY

1200

Rs.40,000

WEDNESDAY

1500

Rs.52,000

THURSDAY

1400

Rs.50,000

FRIDAY

1000

Rs.32,000

 

What was the average cost in wages per car produced for the week?

a.       Rs.25

b.      Rs.26

c.       Rs.32

d.      Rs.34

45.              Which of the following statements about production of cars and the wages paid for the week can be inferred from the table?

I. ¼ of the cars were produced on Wednesday

II.   More employees came to the plant on Friday than on Monday

III. 2/5 of the days accounted for ½ the wages paid for the week.

a.       I only

b.      II only

c.       I and II only

d.      I, II and III

46.              What is the area of the rectangle ABCD, if the length of AC is 5 and the length of AD is 4?

a.       3

b.      6

c.       12

d.      15

47.              A college has raised 755 of the amount it needs for a new building by receiving an average donation of Rs.6,000 from the people already solicited.  The people already solicited represent donations.  If the college is to raise exactly the amount needed for the new building, how much must the remaining people donate per person?

a.       Rs.2,500

b.      Rs.3,000

c.       Rs.4,000

d.      Rs.5,000

48.              Which of the following inequalities is the solution to the inequality 7x – 5 < 2x + 18?

a.       X < 13/5

b.      X > 23/9

c.       X > 23/5

d.      X < 23/5

49.              If the product of two numbers is 10 and the sum of the two numbers is 7, then the larger of the two numbers is

a.       -2

b.      2

c.       3

d.      5

50.              Oranges cost Rs.X a bag for the first 100 bags a store buys from a wholesaler.  All bags bought in addition to the first 100 get a discount of 10%.  How much does it cost to buy 150 bags of oranges from the wholesaler?

a.       Rs.100

b.      Rs.140X

c.       Rs.145X

d.      Rs.150X

51.              If the lengths of the two sides of a right triangle adjacent to the right angle are 8 and 15 respectively, then the length of the side opposite the right angle is

 

a.       258

b.      15.8

c.       16

d.      17

52.              It costs Rs.x each to print the first 600 copies of a newspaper.  It costs Rs.(x-y/10) for every copy after the fist 600.  How much does it cost to print 1,500 copies of the newspaper?

a.       Rs.1500x

b.      Rs.150y

c.       Rs.(1500x-90y)

d.      Rs.150x-9y)

53.              The sum of 5 consecutive integers is 35.  How many of the five consecutive integers are prime numbers?

a.       0

b.      1

c.       2

d.      3

54.              Plane P takes off at 2 A.M. and flies at a constant speed of x mph.  Plane Q takes off at 3.30 A.M. and flies the same route as P but travels at a constant speed of y mph.  Assuming that y is greater, than x, how many hours after 3:30 A.M. will plane Q overtake plane P?

a.       3/2 X hrs

b.      3/2 hrs

c.       3 /2(y-x) hrs

d.      3x / 2(y-x) hrs.

55.              A worker is paid Rs.20 for each day he works, and he is paid proportionately for any fraction of a day he works.  If during one week he works 1/8, 2/3, 3/4 , 1/3 and 1 full day, what are his total earnings for the week?

a.       Rs.40.75

b.      Rs.52.50

c.       Rs.54.00

d.      Rs.57.50

 

Use the following table for answering questions 56 and 57

Distribution of test scores in A class

No. of students

No. of Correct Answers

10

36 to 40

16

32 to 35

12

28 to 31

14

26 to 27

8

0 to 25

 

 

56.              What percent of the class answered 32 or more questions correctly?

a.       16 2/3

b.      20

c.       26 2/3

d.      43 1/3

57.              The number of students who answered 28 to 31 questions correctly is x times the number who answered 25 or fewer correctly, where x is

a.       2/3

b.      1

c.       3/2

d.      7/4

58.              Both circles have radius 4 and the area enclosed by both circles is 28π.  What is the area of the shaded region?

a.       0

b.      2 π

c.       4 π

d.      4 π2

59.              Find the area of the region inside the circle an outside the square ABCD.  A,B,C, and D are all points on the circle, and the radius of the circle is 4.

a.       16 π-36

b.      16(π-2)

c.       16(π-1)

d.      16 π-4

60.              *X is defined as the largest integer which is less than X.  What is the value of (*3) + (*4) + (*4.5)?

a.       9

b.      10

c.       11

d.      11.5

61.              Ramani started work 2 years ago.  Her starting salary was ½ of Kishore’s salary at that time.  Each year since then Ramani has received a raise of 5% in her salary and Kishore has received a raise of 10% in his salary, what percentage (to the nearest integer) of Kishore’s current salary is Ramani’s current salary?

a.       45

b.      46

c.       48

d.      50

62.              Which of the following integers has the largest number of divisors?

a.       88

b.      91

c.       95

d.      99

63.              The schedules of G first-year students were inspected.  It was found that M were taking a math course.  L were taking a language course and B were taking both a math course and a language course.  Which of the following expressions gives the percentage of the students whose schedules were inspected who were taking neither a math course nor a language course?

a.       100 x G / B + L + M

b.      100 x B + L + M / G

c.       100 x G – B – L – M/G

d.      100 x G + B – L – M / G

64.              Which of the following sets of number can be used as the lengths of the sides of a triangle?

I.             [5,7,12]

II.            2,4,10]

III.          [5,7,9]

a.       I only

b.      III only

c.       I and II only

d.      I and III only

65.              A dealer owns a group of station wagons and motorcycles.  If the number of tyres (excluding spare tyres) on the vehicles is 30 more than twice the number of vehicles then the number of station wagons the dealer owns is

a.       10

b.      15

c.       20

d.      30

66.              Water is poured into an empty cylindrical tank at a constant rate for 5 minutes. After the water has been poured into the tank, the depth of the water is 7 feet. The radius of the tank is 10 feet. Which of the following id the best approximation for the rate at which the water was poured into the tank?

a.       140 cubic feet/min

b.      440 cubic feet/min

c.       700 cubic feet/min

d.      2200 cubic feet/min

67.              The average age of four children in a family is 12 years. If the gap between their births is 4 years, then the age of the youngest child is

a.       9 years

b.      8 years

c.       7 years

d.      6 years

68.              Ramesh sold his watch for Rs.160.00 and his pen set for Rs.96.00. He made a profit of 20%on his pen set and took a 10% loss on his watch. He ended up with a

69.              The amount of coal necessary to cook food cost Rs.75.00 in 1995 and will increase at the rate of 25% a year. The amount of LPG necessary to cook the same food cost Rs.80.00 in 1995, but will increase at the rate of 20% a year. In 1997 which of the following methods would cook the food for the cheapest price?

a.       Use of only coal

b.      Use of only LPG

c.       Use of coal or LPG since they cost the same amount, approximately

d.      Use of LPG for 8 months and coal for 4 months.

Foundation data represents the grants given by XYZ Foundation during the year 1994 and 1995. Answer Question No.70 and 71 based on the data.

                        (Rs. In crores)

Grants From the XYZ Foundation

1994

1995

       Colleges

5.2

4.9

       Medical research

3.1

3.5

       Other

1.7

1.8

Total

10.0

10.2

 

70.              Medical research grants between 1994 and 1995

a.       Decreased by 4%

b.      Stayed about the same

c.       Increased by about 10%

d.      Increased by about 13%

e.       Increased by about 21%

71.              What percentage of the total grants of the XYZ Foundation for both years was received by colleges?

a.       49.8

b.      50

c.       50.2

d.      50.5

72.              An angle of x degrees has the property the its complement is equal to 1/6 of its supplement where x is

a.       30

b.      45

c.       60

d.      72

73.              Which of the following numbers is the least common multiple of the numbers 2,3,4 and 5?

a.       24

b.      30

c.       40

d.      60

74.              In a certain town 40% of the people have brown hair, 25% have brown eyes, and 10% have both brown hair and brown eyes.  What percentage of the people in the town have neither brown hair nor brown eyes?

a.       35

b.      40

c.       45

d.      50

75.              If it takes 4 hours of for 50 workers to dig a sewer, how long should it take for 30 workers to dig the same sewer?

a.       6 hrs. 40 min

b.      6 hrs. 20 min

c.       6 hrs. 12 min

d.      5 hrs 12 min

Refer to the following graph and answer the questions from 76 to 80.

76.               For how many of the years shown ws the unemployment rate for females less than the unemployment rate for males?

a.       One

b.      Two

c.       Three

d.      Four

77.              For how many of the years from 1991 through 1996, inclusive, did the unemployment rate for males increase over the rate for males the previous year?

a.       One

b.      Two

c.       Three

d.      Four

78.              In 1996, the total labor force was ten lakhs, of which 55 percent were males.  If the unemployment rate for males is defined as the ratio of the number of unemployed males to the number of males in the labor force, what was the approximate number of unemployed males in 1996?

a.       67,650

b.      55,000

c.       50,000

d.      40,000

79.              What was the unemployment rate (including both males and females) in during 1991?

a.       7.8%

b.      8.3%

c.       15.6%

d.      It cannot be determined from the information given.

80.              Which of the following statements about unemployment can be inferred from the graph?

I.    The same number of females were unemployed in 1995 as in 1994.

II.   The unemployment rate for males in 1996 was more than 1 ½ times the rate for males in 1990.

III. From 1992 to 1993, the number of unemployed males increased.

a.       None

b.      I only

c.       II only

d.      III only

 

Directions:  Each of the following problems has a question and two statements which are labeled (1) and (2) together with other available information (such as the number of hours in a day, the definition of clockwise, mathematical facts, etc.) to decide whether the statements are sufficient to answer the question.  Then mark the answer as

a.            If statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient

b.            If statement 2 alaone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.

c.            If both the statements 1 and 2 together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient

d.            If statement 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

           

 

81.              If both conveyer belt A moves twice as much coal as conveyer belt B

1.         Conveyer belt A moves twice as much coal as conveyer belt B.

2.         The volume of coal is 90 cuft.

82.              Is Y larger than 1?

1.            y is larger than 0

2.            y2 – 4 = 0

83.              How much cardboard will it take to make an open cubical box with no top?

1.            The area of the bottom of the box is 4 square feet

2.            The thickness of the cardboard is 10 mm.

84.              A sequence of numbers is given by the rule an = (an-1)2.  What is a5?

1.            a4 ≠ a5

2.            a3 = 1

85.              If x, y and z are digits, is x + y + z a multiple of 9?  A digit is one of the integers from zero to nine.

1.            The three digit number xyz is a multiple of 9.

2.            (x × y) + z is a multiple of 9.

86.              What was Mr. Smith’s combined income for the year 1990-1995?  In 1990 he made Rs.10,000.

1.         His average yearly income for the years 1990-1995 ws Rs.12,000

2.         In 1995, his income was Rs.20,000.

87.              What is the two digit number whose first digit is a and second digit is b?  The number is greater than 9.

1.            2a + 3b = 11a + 2b

2.         The two digit number is a multiple of 19

88.              If z = 50, find the value of x.

1.            RS = ST

2.            x + y = 60

89.              Did the price of energy increase last year?

1.         If the price of energy increased last year, then the price of food would increase this year.

2.         The price of food increased this year.

90.              What is the area of the circular section AOB?  A and B are points on the circle which has O as its center.

1.            Angle AOB = 36

2.            OB = OA


 

 

Analytical Reasoning

 


 

91.              Monopoly is characterized by an absence of or decline in competion.  The ABC Company realizes that its operations are competitive industries.

a.       ABC’s market is noe monopolistic

b.      Monopoly is defined as one seller in a market

c.       The ABC Company has no domestic competitors

d.      The ABC Company is publicly owned.

92.              Professor Misra told his class that the method of student evaluation of teachers is not a valid measure of teaching quality.  Students should fill out questionnaires at the end of the semester when courses have been completed.

Which of the following, if true, provides support for Prof. Mishra’s proposal?

a.       Prof. Misra received low ratings from his students

b.      Students filled out questionnaires after the midterm exam

c.       Students are interested in teacher evaluation.

d.      The teachers are not obligated to use the survey results.

93.              If we are doomed to have local drug rehabilitation centers – and society has determined that we are then society ought to pay for them.

Which of the following, if true, would weaken the above argument?

a.       Drug rehabilitation centers are too expensive to be locally funded

b.      Many neighborhood groups oppose rehabilitation centers

c.       Drug rehabilitation centers are expensive to maintain.

d.      A government committee has convinced many groups that local rehabilitation centers are ineffective.

94.              An economist was quoted as saying that the Cost-of Living index (COL) will go up next month because of  recent increase in the prices of fruits and vegetables.

a.       The cost of fruits and vegetables has risen sharply.

b.      Consumers have decreased their consumption of fruits and vegetables.

c.       The cost of fruits and vegetables.

d.      Food cost changes are reflected quickly in the COL.

95.              Significant beneficial effects of smoking occur primarily in the area of mental health, and the habit originates in a search for contentment.  The life expectancy of our people has increased greatly in recent years, it is possible that relaxation contentment and enjoyment produced by smoking has lengthened many lives.  Smoking is beneficial.  Which of the following, if true, weakens the above conclusion?

a.       That cigarettes are a major health hazard cannot be traced to the willful act of any human or organization.

b.      The government earns millions of dollars from the tobacco tax and tens of thousands of civilians are employed in the tobacco industry.

c.       The evidence cited in the statement covers only one example of the effects of cigarette smoking.

d.      No statistical evidence has proven a link between smoking and longevity.

96.              At a political rally at Wankhade Stadium, candidate Laloo Yadav exclaimed: “Nearly everyone at the rally is behind me.  It looks like I am going to be elected.” 

Which of the following statements, if true, best supports the above conclusion?

a.       Laloo’s opponent also appeared at the rally.

b.      The rally ws attended by almost all the residents of Laloo’s constituency

c.       Laloo was never defeated in an election

d.      Laloo was supported by the local mayor.

97.              You have three boxes, each containing two balls, one containing a black pair, one a white pair; and the third, one white ball and one black ball.  On each box are pictures of two balls either two black ones.  Two white ones, or one white and one black.  You are told that the markings on the boes are all wrong.  You are asked to ascertain the colors of the balls contained in each box. 

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above?

a.       You can take out one ball from the box marked with two black balls and without looking at the second ball, know what each box actually contains.

b.      You can take out one ball from the box marked with two white balls and, without looking at the second ball, know what each box actually contains.

c.       You can take out one ball from the box marked with one white ball and one black ball and, without looking at the second ball, know what each box contains.

d.      You cannot know which balls are contained in which box until you take a ball out of more than one box.

98.              More and more organizations in the world today are prepared t carry out criminal acts in order to achieve their ends.  Often these acts involve the taking of innocent people as hostages.  One of the most urgent problems on the agenda of most Western European Governments is terrorism and how to deal with it.  In handling the situations that arise, all agree that swift and effective action must be taken to combat the terrorists, but for some reason, when terrorism arrives on their doorstep in the form of hijacked airplane for example-some governments give in all too quickly too the demands of the terrorists.  It is understandable that governments must act to safeguard the welfare of their citizens and other innocent people caught up in the criminal act.  However, what the governments seem to ignore is that if you give in to the terrorist once he or she will play upon your weakness an therefore be encouraged to indulge in terrorist acts in future occasions.

Which of the following conclusion best describes the views of the writer of the above passage?

a.       There is a subtle, but certain difference between state terrorism and terrorist act carried out by individuals or members of illegal terrorist groups.

b.      One man’s terrorist is another man’s freedom fighter.

c.       Governments make no distinction between terrorism carried out for financial gain and that carried out in the name of a political organization.

d.      Surrender to blackmail and you invite more blackmail.

99.              In the past, to run for one’s country in the Olympics was the ultimate achievement of any athlete.  Nowadays an athlete’s motives are more and more influenced by financial gain and consequently we do not see out best athletes in the Olympics which is still only for amateurs.

Which of the following will most weaken the above conclusion?

a.       The publicity and fame that can be achieved by competing in the Olympics makes athletes more “marketable” by agents and potential sponsors, while allowing the athletes to retain their amateur status.

b.      The winning of a race is not as important as participating.

c.       There is a widely held belief that out best Olympic athletes already receive enough in terms of promotion and sponsorship.

d.      It has been suggested that professional athletes should be allowed to compete in the games.

100.          All elephants are grey

And all mice are grey

Therefore I conclude that all elephants are grey

The argument have is invalid because

a.       The writer bases his argument on another argument that contains circular reasoning

b.      The writer has illogically classified two disparate groups together when there is no relationship between them except that they both have the same attribute

c.       The writer has used a fallacy which involves the ambiguous description of animals by their color.

d.      The writer has failed to express his reasoning fully.

101.          Unless new reserves are found soon, the world’s supply of coal is being depleted in such a way that with demand continuing to grow at present rates, reserves will be exhausted by the year 2050.

Which of the following, if true, will most weaken the above argument?

a.       There has been a slow down in the rate of increase in world demand for coal over the last 5 years from 10% to 5%

b.      It has been known for many years that there are vast stocks of coal under Antarctica which have yet to be economically exploited.

c.       Oil is being used increasingly in place of coal for many industrial and domestic uses.

d.      None of the above

102.          Mr. and Mrs. Rao and their son Venkat want to cross a river.  The only way across is with Mr. Chpora in his rowboat.  Mr. Chopra will not allow anyone to row his boat and will take only one passenger at a time.  Venkat is only a little boy so he cannot be left alone on the river bank.

Which of the following conditions are not part of the successful passage of the Raos across the river?

a.       Mr. Rao crosses the river first.

b.      Mrs. Rao crosses the river last.

c.       Venkat crosses the river first

d.      Venkat crosses the river second.

103.          Imagine you are a prisoner.  Two prison guards Jay and Vijay, defend two doors.  One door leads to death, the other to your life and freedom.

Each of the guards either always tells the truth or always lies.  Both may be truth-tellers, both may be liars, or one may be a liar and the other a truth-teller.

You are allowed to choose from the following questions to discover which door leads to your release.

1.   Is your comrade the same as you?

2.   Are you guarding the door to life and liberty?

3.   Is your comrade lying?

4.   Are you telling the truth?

Which of the following combinations of questions will lead to your certain freedom?

a.       3 to Jay, 4 to Vijay 2 to Jay

b.      3 to Vijay, 2 to Jay 1 to Vijay

c.       2 to Vijay, 2 to Jay, 3 to Jay

d.      1 to Vijay, 1 to Jay, 2 to Vijay

104.          The Pistons have more points than the Nuggets.  The Bullets have less points than the Lakers.  The Nuggets and the Suns have the same number of points.  The Suns have more points than the Bullets.

If the above is true, which of the following must also be true?

a.       The Nuggets have fewer points than the Bullets

b.      The Pistons have more points than the Bullets

c.       The Nuggets have fewer points than the Lakers

d.      The Lakers have more points than the Pistons.

105.          A train leaves New Jersey for New York every minute, all trains traveling on the same line.  At the same time and leaving at the same one-minute intervals trains make the journey in the opposite direction (New York to New Jersey) traveling all the time on rails parallel to the New York bound trains.  All the trains complete the 60 mile journey in exactly one hour.  No other trains use these tracks.

Given the above facts, which of the following conclusions cannot be made?

a.       A train leaving New Jersey at 3 P.M. will pass the train which left New York at 3:15 P.M. after the latter has completed one quarter of its journey.

b.      The 3:30 P.M. out of New York will reach its destination before the train due to arrive in New York at 6 P.M. has left its home station.

c.       The train that leaves New York at 4 P.M. will pass 60 trains during its journey.

d.      None of the above

106.          A politician wrote the following: “I realize there are some shortcomings to the questionnaire method.  However, since I send a copy of the questionnaire to every home in the district, I believe the results are quite representative … I think the numbers received are so large that it is quite accurate even though the survey is not done scientifically.”

The writer of the above statement makes which of the following assumptions:

a.       Most people who received the questionnaire have replied

b.      The questionnaire method of data collection is unscientific.

c.       The large number of replies means that a high production of those sampled have replied.

d.      A large, absolute number of replies is synonymous with accuracy.

107.          Pioneers of the motor car industry realized that if they were going to meet the growing demand for their product they had to adapt the labor force used, in the productive process.  Instead of many men working to complete all the stages of one car at a time they assigned defined tasks to each man which they would repeat on every car.

Which of the following can be concluded from the passage?

a.       Early motor car manufacturers intended to increase productivity by applying the principle of dividion of labor

b.      The car workers became disgruntled because they were assigned monotonous repetitive tasks on the assembly line.

c.       Economies  of scale enabled early motor companies to expand

d.      A bad worker would perform the same task badly on each car leading to many more rejects.

108.          In order to boost sales of toys at times other than the peak sale time – Christmas – manufacturers use many techniques.  Character toys from movies or TV series are promoted, and all sets are ‘collections, however, never appear to be complete, because as soon as all the characters are acquired, the child then requires the ‘car’, the ‘home’, the ‘mobile home’, and even the ‘airplane’ to ensure a happy environment for the toys.  Ultimately, the elusive final piece of the series is attained just as the manufacturer and promoter is to ensure than

a.       As soon as one set is complete or almost complete, then the next one arrives on the scene

b.      Children should be encouraged to complete their collections of toys

c.       Christmas must be the peak selling period for toys

d.      Sales need to be bolstered throughout the year.

109.          A company is building a monument and the company’s architect reckons that each separate part of the job will take one day.  There are 8 separate stages to the job.  The parts of the job must be performed in a certain order, some of  which can be done while another is being performed. 

When part 1 is complete, parts 2 and 3 can begin

when part 3 is complete, part 4 can begin

When parts 2 and 4 are complete, part 5 can begin

When part 4 is complete, part 7 can begin

When part 5 is complete, part 6 can begin

When part 6 is complete, part 8 can begin

What is the minimum number of days in which the job can be done?

a.       8

b.      7

c.       6

d.      6

110.          Choosing an executive for important positions in top companies can be a chancy business.  Many decisions are arbitrary and dependent on personal preferences and prejudices.  Appearance, color of clothes, beards, height, can all aid or hinder a candidates chances for success.

Additional methods for helping a head hunter to choose the correct candidate can be psychometric testing and handwriting analysis.  Although these tests cannot be taken in isolation, they may help to highlight weaknesses and strengths in a candidate’s aptitudes.  The tests include verbal and numerical critical reasoning tests, detailed personality questionnaires, and often, additional tests to see how candidates organize their time and utilize their resources.

By also using a personal interview, the company can then find the most suitable person for a job.  Which of the following statements can be derived from the above?

a.       Psychometric tests alone should be used to choose candidates

b.      Psychometric tests are essential in choosing suitable candidates for jobs.

c.       Psychometric tests show up the weaknesses of candidates.

d.      Successful candidature for a top job is dependent only luck.

111.          Administrators and executives are members of the most stable occupation.

The stability mentioned in the above statement could be dependent on each of the following factors EXCEPT

a.       Training and skills

b.      Nature of the occupation

c.       Status

d.      Rate of turnover

112.          Self-employment is found more often among men and women in the 25 to 44 year old group than among their older or younger counterparts.  Some 31 percent of the men and only 19 percent of the women who operate unicorporated business on a full time basis completed four or more year of college.  And while self employed men and generally better educated than their wage and salary counterparts, the same cannot be said of self employed women.

If the information above is accurate, which of the following is must be true?

a.       Self-employed women are generally younger than self-employed men

b.      Self-employed men have more education than self-employed women.

c.       Women wage earners have more education than men wage earners.

d.      Salaried men are younger than self-employed men.

113.          “Some men are certainly tall, others are certainly not tall but of intermediate men, we should say tall”?  Yes, I think so or no, I shouldn’t be inclined to call him tall”.

Which of the following most accurately reflects the intention of the writer of the above?

a.       Men intermediately tall, partake of ‘tallness’ to a moderate degree.

b.      To call men tall who are not strikingly so must be to use the concept with undue imprecision.

c.       Every empirical concept has a degree of vagueness

d.      Calling someone tall or short depends upon one’s whim.

114.          There are many reasons why individuals want to run their own businesses.  Some foresee more personal satisfaction if they are successful in launching their own business, while others are interested mainly in the prospect of larger financial rewards.  Since the late 1970s and early 1980s tax regulations and other charges have encouraged increasing numbers of venture capitalists and entrepreneurs to start new enterprises.  Since 1980, some one-half million new ventures have been started.  Not all have succeeded, of  course.  The above statement makes which of the following assumptions?

a.       Success in starting a new business depends in large part on sound financial planning.

b.      Social incentives motivate investors just as much as financial rewards.

c.       Financial incentives are associated with new business starts.

d.      Venture capitalists are motivated by no monetary gains.

115.          A highly cohesive work group is a prerequisite for high team performance.  Sociologists posit that the association between group cohesion and success is owing to the support individual team members give to one other and their acceptance of the groups goals and activities.

Each of the following if true, either provides support for or cannot weaken the sociologists assumption about the relationship between cohesion and success EXCEPT.

a.       Industrial psychologists in England found that work groups who tended to participate in after hours social activities were more productive.

b.      University researchers found that there was a significant correlation between team productivity and the extent to which team members understood and complied with the group’s objectives.

c.       The winning team in a computerized business game rated their peers generally low on “stick by the rules”, “extrovert” “friendly,” and “positive” and high on ego-centric”,” “individualistic,” and “discord”.

 

Answer Questions No. 116-120 based on the following information:

Six arms negotiators – M.O.P.R and T-are to be seated at a round table to discuss disarmament.  There are exactly six chairs around the table.  Each negotiator sits facing the center of the table and is directly opposite a negotiator across the table.  The sitting arrangement is subject to the following restrictions.

               T cannot sit next to P

               S cannot sit next to M

               R must sit next to M

116.          If R sits next to S on S’s right side, who must sit next to R on R’s right side?

a.       M

b.      O

c.       P

d.      S

117.          Which of the following is an acceptable sequence of negotiators around the table?

a.       M, S, R, T, P, O

b.      M, S, T, P, R, O

c.       T, O, P, S, M, R

d.      T, R, M, P, S, O

118.          If M sits next to P, which of the following is a complete and accurate list of those who can sit next to P on P’s other side?

a.       O

b.      O, S

c.       O, S, R

d.      R, S, T

119.          If T sits next to M and S sits next to R, which of the other negotiators must sit next to S?

a.       M

b.      O

c.       P

d.      R

120.          If T sits directly across the table from ) who must sit on either side of P

a.       M and O

b.      M and S

c.       O and R

d.      O and S

 

Directions:  Each question consists six statements.  Identify which three of the six statements are logically connected

121.           

A.     All dams are mad to generate benefits

B.     The biggest dams give the greatest benefits

C.     No dam gives sustained benefits to society

D.     All dams are big structures

a.       DEB

b.      ACF

c.       CFA

d.      ADB

122.           

A.                       Some bigots are chauvinists

B.                       Some fanatics are dangerous

C.                       All fanatics are bigots

D.                       All chauvinists are dangerous

E.                        Some fanatics are chauvinists

F.                        Some bigots are dangerous

a.       CAE

b.      CDE

c.       AEF

d.      BEC

123.          Few powerful people are humble

A.                       Few powerful people are humble

B.                       Power always destroys humility in a person

C.                       Power results in a feeling of superiority

D.                       All people crave power

E.                        No powerful man is humble

F.                        All people ultimately choose power to humility

a.       BDF

b.      ABF

c.       DBE

d.      BCD

124.       

A.                       Apples and guavas cannot be compared

B.                       Pineapples and guavas cannot be compared

C.                       Apples  and oranges can be compared

D.                       Applies, guavas and pineapples cannot be compared with each other

E.                        Apples can be compared with pineapples

F.                        Guavas and oranges cannot be compared

a.       BDF

b.      CEB

c.       AEB

d.      FBC

125.       

A.                       Radhesh cannot say the lies

B.                       All those who can say they lie need not be lying

C.                       Only liars can say they lie

D.                       Radhesh can say he lies

E.                        No liar can say he lies

F.                        Radhesh is a liar

a.       ADF

b.      BCE

c.       CDE

d.      CDF

 

Directions:  For Questions 126-130 , arrange the sentences, A, B, C, D in a logical sequence between the sentences (1) and (6) so as to make logical sense.

126.

1.         All life on earth – from the lowliest rock-bound lichen to the mightiest philosopher – exists because of a dual miracle of chemistry called photosynthesis and respiration.

A.        Through respiration, both plant and animal cells take in oxygen and use it to turn sugar and other food into energy; the by-products of respiration, water and carbon dioxide, are returned to the atmosphere to be used once again in photosynthesis.

B.         Through photosynthesis, a plant cell traps a tiny amount of the sun’s radiant energy and uses it to convert water (from the soil) and carbon dioxide (from the air) into sugar and oxygen.

C.        This cycle of life is endlessly repeated: A cow eats the plants and by respiration uses the sugar’s energy to produce milk and flesh; man uses the milk to slake his thirst and the flesh to assuage his hunger.

D.        And with the energy so provided, he plants more grain and scales mountains.

6.         Sunlight, photosynthesis and respiration sustain all life.

a.         BCAD

b.         BACD

c.         CDBA

d.         CABD

127.

1.         The appetite regulator, often called the “appestat” is now known to be housed in an area at the base of the brain known as the hypothalamus.

A.        The other called the “satiety center” counteracts this urge.

B.         One, known as the “feeding center” initiates the urge to eat

C.        Within the appestat are two distinct groups of cells, or control centers.

D.        In a normal person, when the demand of the body for energy – producing food has been satisfied the satiety center signals the feeding center to half further intake.

6.         But in some people, the satiety center apparently fails to operate properly and the victim literally “doesn’t know when to stop eating.”

a.         DCBA

BACD

CBAD

ACBD

 

128.    

1.         If a body’s frontline defense is overcome, allowing germs to establish a beachhead in body tissues, infection sets in

A.        These defenses are white scavenger cells called phagocytes, which squirm out through the blood vessel’s walls to engulf and digest microbes in surrounding tissue.

B.         As the phagocytes counterattack the invaders, they release a chemical that causes fever.

C.        Fever seems to aid the body’s defense forces.

D.        The infected area becomes inflamed and swollen as blood vessels expand to bring up blood borne reserve troops.

6.         But how it does so is unknown – as is the mechanism by which ordinary aspirin, that common and reliable drug, reduces fever.

a.         DABC

b.         BCAD

c.         CDAB

d.         ABCD

129

1.         Whether or not it is reflectable in the programs you watch, research has found that many of our expectations of marriage have to do with the roles we think we will or should play.

A.        Looking after the home is till generally seen as the woman’s job.

B.         An ideal strongly expenses in women’s magazines and the women’s pages of newspapers is that the modern marriage will make ample room for women to develop talents and careers.

C.        Marriage today is far more symmetrical than it used to be and most couples now expect to share the responsibilities as equally as possible while still retaining, to some extent possible while still retaining to some extent, the traditional distinctions of their sex roles.

D.        In reality, in a marriage where both husband and wife go out to work both usually regard the man’s job as more important.

6.         Keeping some traditional divisions makes a good practical sense for married couples who plan to have children.

a.         BDAC

b.         ACDB

c.         CBDA

d.         DBCA

130.     According to Greek myth, Pandora was the first woman.

A.        Only hope was left

B.         She was send to rebellious Titans on earth by Zeus as a punishment for mankind.

C.        She was given a box to take with her, with instructions not to open it.

D.        Because she was curious, she disobeyed opened the box and all the evils of the world flew out.

6.         Pandora’s box has since become a symbol for any action whose consequences are dangerously unpredictable.

a.         DCBA

b.         ABCD

c.         BCDA

d.         CADB

 

 


 

 

Vocabulary and Writing Skills

 


 

Directions:  In Question No. 131-144, a related pair of words or phrases is followed by five lettered pairs of words or phrases.  Select the lettered pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.

131.    DERMATOLOGIST : SKIN

a.       dentist : organ

b.      optometrist : nerves

c.       oncologist : joint

d.      podiatrist : feet

132.          SUSPICIOUS : PARANOID

a.       Envious : proud

b.      Admiring : idolatrous

c.       Joyous : virtuous

d.      Furtive : forthright

133.          ANACHRONISTIC : TIME

a.       discordant : sound

b.      dilapidated : construction

c.       disreputable : personality

d.      nauseating : odour

134.          STIPPLE : DOT

a.       Striate : band

b.      Camouflage : target

c.       Inseribe : drawing

d.      Freckle : face

135.          GOURMAND : APPETITE

a.       Pedant : simplicity

b.      Skinflint : thrift

c.       Prodigal : energy

d.      Egotist : honesty

136.          FOREGERY : COUNTERFEIT

a.       Duplicity : testimony

b.      Arson : insurance

c.       Embezzlement : fraud

d.      Theft : punishment

137.          NICOTINE : TOBACCO

a.       Calcium : bone

b.      Iodine : salt

c.       Protein : meat

d.      Caffeine : coffee

138.          BIT : DRILL

a.       Num : bolt

b.      Nail : hammer

c.       Blade : razor

d.      Stapler : paper

139.          MISJUDGE : ASSESS

a.       Misconstrue : interpret

b.      Misconduct : rehearse

c.       Misinform : design

d.      Misperceive : explain

140.          PHILOSOPHER : CIGITATE

a.       Linguist : prevaricate

b.      Politician : capitulate

c.       Scholar : extemporize

d.      Iconoclast : attack

141.          SOLDIER : ARMY

a.       Gas : vapor

b.      Music : harmony

c.       Ruler : height

d.      Element : compound

142.          SLUR : SPEECH

a.       Erase : drawing

b.      Smudge : writing

c.       Confuse : puzzle

d.      Crumble : construction

143.          TRICKLE : GUSH

a.       Breathe : exhale

b.      Amble : move

c.       Stain : blotch

d.      Warm : seal

144.          CHARADE : WORD

a.       Symbol : Algebra

b.      Joke : Riddle

c.       Sign : Direction

d.      Mime : Story

145.          VERNACULAR : PLACE

a.       Code : solution

b.      Fingerprint : identify

c.       Symptom : disease

d.      Jargon : profession

Directions: question No. 146-150 consist of a word printed in capital letters, followed by five lettered words or phrases choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.

146.          GROUP

a.       Restrain

b.      Isolate

c.       Confound

d.      Abandon

147.          PERSEVERANCE:

a.       Obvious suffering

b.      Abnormal tranquility

c.       Lack of promptness

d.      Cessation of effort

148.          DEBACLE

a.       Definite agreement

b.      Complete success

c.       Ungrudging acceptance

d.      Unquestionable assumption

149.          ARTLESSNESS

a.       Originality

b.      Objectivity

c.       Cunning

d.      Foresight

150.          NAUGATORY

a.       Unlimited

b.      Innovative

c.       Fashionable

d.      Consequential

 

Directions:  Question No. 151 – 172 consist of a number of sentences, in each of which some part or the whole is underlined.  Each sentence is followed by four alternative versions of the underlined portion.  Select an alternative you consider both most correct and most effective according to the requirements of standard written English.  Answer A is the same as the original version; if you think the original version is best select answer A.

In considering the answer choices be attentive to matters of grammar, diction, and syntax, as well as clarity precision, and fluency.  Do not select an answer which alters the meaning of the original sentence.

 

151.          The fourteen-hour day not only has been reduced to one of ten hours but also, in some lines of work, to one of eight or even six.

a.       The fourteen-hour day not only has been reduced.

b.      Not only the fourteen-hour day has been reduced.

c.       Not the fourteen-hour day only has been reduced.

d.      The fourteen-hour day has been reduced not only.

152.          Because of his broken hip Milka Singh has not and possibly never will be able to run the mile again.

a.       Has not and possibly never will be able to run

b.      Has not and possibly will never be able to run

c.       Has not been and possibly never would be able to run

d.      Has not been able to run and possibly never will be able to run.

153.          No student had ought to be put into a situation where he has to choose between his loyalty to his friends and his duty to the class.

a.       No student had ought to be put into a situation where

b.      No student had ought to be put into a situation in which.

c.       No student should be put into a situation where

d.      No student ought to be put into a situation in which

154.          The climax occurs when he asks who’s in the closet.

a.       Occurs when he asks who’s

b.      Is when he asks whose

c.       Occurs when he asks whose

d.      Is when he asks whose

155.          The process by which the community influence the actions of its members is known as social control.

a.       Influence the actions of its members

b.      Influences the actions of its members

c.       Had influenced the actions of its members

d.      Influences the actions of their members.

156.          Depending on skillful suggestion, argument is seldom used in advertising.

a.       Depending on skillful suggestion, argument is seldom used in advertising

b.      Argument is seldom used by advertisers, who depend instead on skillful suggestion.

c.       Skillful suggestion is depended on by advertisers instead of argument.

d.      Suggestion, which is more skillful, is used in place of argument by advertisers.

157.          Either you transfer the data which was demanded  or file a report explaining why you did not submit the overall annual figures.

a.       Either you transfer the data which was demanded.

b.      You either transfer the data, which was demanded.

c.       You either transfer the data which were demanded.

d.      Either you transfer the data, which was demanded.

158.          In a great amount of the requests, there has been very few that the staff could deal with efficiently.

a.       In a great amount of the requests, there have been very few.

b.      Out of the great amount of the requests, there have been very little.

c.       In a great amount of the requests, there has been very few.

d.      Of the great number of requests, there have been very few.

159.          After a careful evaluation of the circumstances surrounding the incident, we decided that we neither have the authority nor the means to cope with the problem.

a.       Neither have the authority nor

b.      Neither have authority or

c.       Have neither the authority nor

d.      Have neither the authority or

160.          If they would have taken greater care  in the disposal of the nuclear waste, the disaster would not have occurred.

a.       If they would have taken greater care

b.      Unless they took greater care

c.       Had they not taken greater care

d.      If they had taken greater care

161.          after adequate deliberation, the council can see scarcely any valid reason for its reviewing the request

a.       can see scarcely any valid reason for its

b.      can not see scarcely any valid reason for its

c.       can see any valid reason scarcely for its

d.      can see scarcely any valid reason for it’s

162.          If she were I, she would have accepted the prize if she had won it.

a.       Were I, she would have accepted the prize if she had

b.      Was I, she would have accepted the prize if she would have

c.       Was I she would have accepted the prize if she had

d.      Were I, she would have accepted the prize if she would have

163.          Former the moment he took public office, his actions have been loaded with significance and filled with worth.

a.       Been loaded with significance and filled with worth.

b.      Been significant and worthwhile

c.       Become loaded with significance and worth.

d.      To be loaded with significance and filled with worth.

164.          The trend a decrease is further evidenced in the longer weekend already given to employees in many business establishments.

a.       already

b.      all ready

c.       allready

d.      ready

165.          Using it wisely, leisure promotes health, efficiency, and happiness.

a.       Using it wisely

b.      If used wisely.

c.       Having used it wisely

d.      Because it is used wisely.

166.          The government’s failing to keep it’s pledges  will earn the distrust of all the other nations in the alliance.

a.       Government’s failing to keep it’s pledges

b.      Government’s failing to keep it’s pledges

c.       Government’s failing to keep its pledges

d.      Government’s failing to keep its pledges

167.          Many middle-class  individuals find that they cannot obtain good medical attention despite they need it badly.

a.       Despite they need it badly

b.      Despite they badly need it

c.       In spite of they need it badly

d.      However much they need it.

168.          I am not to eager to go to this play because it did not get good reviews.

a.       I am not to eager to go to this play because it did not get good reviews.

b.      Because of its poor reviews, I am not to eager to go to this play.

c.       Because of its poor reviews, I am not to eager to go to this play.

d.      I am not too eager to go to this play because of its poor reviews.

169.          More than any animal, the wolverine exemplifies the unbridled ferocity of “nature red in tooth and claw”

a.       More than any animal

b.      More than any other animal

c.       More than another animal

d.      Unlike any animal

170.          He interviewed several candidates who he thought had the experience and qualifications the position required.

a.       who he thought

b.      whom he thought

c.       of whom he thought

d.      he thought who

171.          Before starting a program of diet and exercise, a consultation with your physician is advisable.

a.       A consultation with your physician is advisable

b.      It is advisable to have a consultation with your physician

c.       A physician’s consultation is advisable

d.      You should consult your physician.

172.          Fame as well as fortune were his goals in life.

a.       Frame as well as fortune were his goals

b.      Fame as well as fortune was his goals

c.       Fame as well as fortune were his goal

d.      Fame and fortune were his goal.

 


 

 

Reading Comprehension


 

Read the following and answer the given questions.

With Friedrich Engels, Karl Marx in 1948 published the Communist Manifesto, calling upon the masses to rise and throw off their  economic chains.  His mature theories of society were later elaborated in his large and abstruse work Das Capital.  Starting as a non violent revolutionist, he ended life as a major social theorist more or less sympathetic with violent revolution, if such became necessary in order to change the social system which he believed to be frankly predatory upon the masses.

On the theoretical side, Marx set up the doctrine of surplus value as the chief element in capitalistic exploitation.  According to this theory, the ruling classes no longer employed military force primarily as a means to plundering the people.  Instead, they used their control over employment and working conditions under the bourgeois capitalistic system for this purpose, paying ony a bare subsistence wage to the worker while they appropriated all surplus values in the productive process.  He further taught that the strategic disadvantage of the worker in industry prevented him from obtaining a fairer share of the earnings by barganinig methods and drove him to revolutionary procedures as a means to establishing his economic and social rights.  This revolution might be peacefully consummated by parliamentary procedures if the people prepared themselves for political action by mastering the materialistic interpretation of history and by organizing politically for the final event.  It was his belief that the aggressions of the capitalist class would eventually destroy the middle class and take over all their source of income by a process of capitalistic absorption of industry – a process which has failed to occur in most countries.

With minor exceptions, Marx’s social philosophy now generally accepted by left-wing labor movement in many countries, but rejected by centrist labor groups especially those in the United States.  In Russia and other Eastern European countries, however, Socialist leaders adopted the methods of violent revolution because of the opposition of the ruling classes.  Yes, many now hold that the present Communist regime in Russia and her satellite countries is no longer a proletarian movement based on Marxist social and political theory, but a camouflaged imperialistic effort to dominate the world in the interest of a new ruling class.

It is important, however, that those who wish to approach Marx as a leader should not be ‘buffaloed’ by his philosophic approach.  They are very likely to in these days, because those most interested in propagating the ideas of Marx, the Russian Bolsheviks, have swallowed down his Hegelian philosophy along with his science of revolutionary engineering, and they look upon us irreverent people who presume to mediate social and even revolutionary problems without making our obeisance to the mysteries of Dialectic Materialism, as a species of unredeemed and well nigh unredeemable barbarians.  They are wrong in scoring our distaste for having practical programs presented in the form of systems of philosophy.  In that, we simply represent which Marx received his education-a culture further emerged from the dominance of religious attitudes.

173.          According to the passage, the chief element in Marx’s analysis of capitalist exploitation was the doctrine of

a.       Just wages

b.      The price system

c.       Surplus value

d.      Predatory production

e.       Subsistence work

174.          Das Capital differs from the Communist Manifesto in that it

a.       Was written with the help of Friedrich Engles

b.      Retreated from Marx’s earlier revolutionary stance

c.       Expressed a more fully developed form of Marxist theory

d.      Denounced the predatory nature of the capitalist system

e.       Expressed sympathy for the plight of the middle class

175.          According to the passage, Marx ended his life

I.    A believer in non-violent revolution

II.   Accepting violent revolution

III. A major social theorist

a.       I only

b.      III only

c.       I and III only

d.      II and III only

e.       Neither I II nor III

176.          The author suggests that the present Communist regime in Russia may best be categorized as a(n)

a.       Proletarian movement

b.      Social government

c.       Imperialistic state

d.      Revolutionary government

e.       Social democracy

177.          Marx’s social philosophy is not generally accepted by

a.       Centrist labor groups

b.      Most labor unions

c.       Left-wing labor unions

d.      Only those in Communist countries

e.       Only those in Russia

178.           can be concluded that the author of the passage is

a.       sympathetic to marx’s ideas

b.      unsympathetic to marx’s ideas

c.       uncritical of marx’s interpretation of history

d.      a believer in Hegelian philosophy

e.       a Leninist –Marxist

179.          Which of the following classes did Marx believe should control the economy?

a.       The working class

b.      The upper class

c.       The middle class

d.      The lower class

e.       The capitalist class

180.          According to Marx, a social and economic revolution could take place through

a.       Parliamentary procedures

b.      Political action

c.       Violent revolution

d.      I only

e.       III only

f.        I or II only

g.       II or III only

h.       I, II, or III

 

 

 

  


 

KEY to Practice Test VII

 

1. d

2. d

3. a

4. b

5. a

6. d

7. b

8. c

9. d

10. b

11. b

12. c

13. c

14. d

15. d

16. b

17. c

18. c

19. a

20. b

21. d

22. d

23. d

24. c

25. a

26. c

27. d

28. d

29. d

30. c

31. d

32. a

33. d

34. c

35. b

36. c

37. a

38. d

39. b

40. b

41. b

42. d

43. b

44. d

45. d

46. c

47. b

48. d

49. d

50. c

51. d

52. c

53. c

54. d

55. d

56. d

57. c

58. c

59. b

60. a

61. b

62. a

63. d

64. b

65. b

66. b

67. d

68. a

69. d

70. d

71. b

72. d

73. d

74. c

75. a

76. b

77. d

78. a

79. d

80. c

81. a

82. a

83. a

84. b

85. a

86. a

87. a

88. c

89. c

90. a

91. a

92. b

93. d

94. c

95. d

96. b

97. c

98. d

99. d

100. b

101. d

102. c

103. d

104. b

105. d

106. b

107. a

108. d

109. c

110. d

111. d

112. b

113. c

114. c

115. d

116. a

117. d

118. b

119. c

120. d

121. a

122. a

123. c

124. c

125. d

126. b

127. a

128. a

129. c

130. c

131. d

132. b

133. a

134. a

135. b

136. c

137. d

138. d

139. a

140. b

141. d

142. b

143. d

144. d

145. d

146. b

147. d

148. b

149. c

150. d

151. d

152. d

153. d

154. a

155. b

156. b

157. c

158. d

159. c

160. d

161. a

162. a

163. b

164. a

165. b

166. c

167. d

168. d

169. b

170. c

171. d

172. d

173.c

174. c

175. d

176. c

177. c

178. b

179. a

180. e