IBSAT

Practice Test – 5

Quantitative Ability

 


 

1.        If 3 items cost Rs. X, then how many items can be purchased for Rs.Y?

a.       X/3X

b.      3 X/Y

c.       3Y /X

d.      3XY

2.                  If the profit made by selling 100 items of an article is equal to the total selling price of 25 items of the article, then the percentage profit is

a.       25%

b.      33 1/3%

c.       20%

d.      7.5%

 

3.                  The value of log a/b + log b/c + log c/a is

a.       abc

b.      a+b+c

c.       1

d.      0

 

4.                  If MAX (a,b,c) = the largest of a, b, and c; MIN (a,b,c) = the smallest of a, b, and c: then MAX (MIN (5,2,7) MAX (-3, -4, -2), 3) = is

a.       2

b.      3

c.       -2

d.      -3

5.                  If the selling price is Rs.C, the buying price is Rs.B and the profit is Rs.P, then which of the following is true?

a.       Profit margin = B%

b.      B = C – P

c.       P = C – P

d.      C = P – B

6.                  By walking at ¾ of his usual speed, Shankar reaches his office 20 minutes later than usual.  His usual time is

a.       30 minutes

b.      60 minutes

c.       75 minutes

d.      90 minutes

7.                  Simplify (323)2x-3y for x=3, y=2

a.       323

b.      0

c.       1

d.      04649

8.                  If all the pircute cards (Jack, Queen, King, Ace) are removed from a pack of cards, then the sum of the value of the remaining cards is

a.       55

b.      220

c.       54

d.      216

9.                  What is the minimum number of weighing operations required to measure 31 kg of rice if

a.       31

b.      30

c.       5

d.      166

10.              A, B, C, D, E are 5 balls such that each one is connected to each of the others by a string.  How many pieces of string are required?

a.       5

b.      10

c.       15

d.      25

11.              In binary representation (base = 2 as against the usual system where base = 10), the numbers 1,2,3,4,5 etc. are written as 1,10,11,100, 101 etc.  The number 10 will be written as

a.       1010

b.      1001

c.       1100

d.      1101

12.              If  and a and b are integers, then a and b could be

a.       0,1

b.      1,2

c.       2,3

d.      3,4

13.              If n = m+1 and m>3, then what can be said about the inequality m1/m > n1/n?

a.       Nothing can be said

b.      It is false

c.       It depends on m and n

d.      It is true

14.              If five men exchange addresses with one another, how many exchanges take place?

a.       20

b.      5

c.       10

d.      15

15.              If it takes one man-day to complete a task, it means that it takes 24 hours for one man to complete the task, 3 men start working together on task on a Tuesday.  They work for 6 hours in a day.  How many days will they need to complete it, if the task requires 3 man-days?

a.       2

b.      6

c.       3

d.      4

16.              If the circular cross-section of an iron rod is machined to a square cross-section with minimum wastage of material, then the wastage as a percentage of the original volume of the raw material is

a.       21%

b.      36%

c.       52%

d.      63%

17.              If and a, b, c are positive, then each of the three ratios is equal to

a.       1/3

b.      ½

c.       ¼

d.      1/9

18.              The ratio of the number of white balls in a bag to that of black balls is 1:2 if 9 grey balls are added, then the ratio of the numbers of the different balls becomes 2:4:3.  How many black balls are there in the bag?

a.       6

b.      9

c.       12

d.      8

19.              The structure of line on late payments is as follows:

A flat sum of Rs.1000 for late payment and a surcharge @5% per day on the amount borrowed from the bank is charged.  If A borrows Rs.10000 from the bank and delays the repayment by two days, the total fine to be borne by him is

a.       Rs.1000

b.      Rs.2000

c.       Rs.21000

d.      Rs.1010

20.              If a long wire in the shape of an equilateral triangle is turned into a square, the areas are in the ratio of

a.       4:3√3

b.      2: √3

c.       4: 9√3

d.      8 : 3√3

For Question 21-25 are based on the following:

Snaffle is played with a normal pack of 52 cards.  Each player deals with 13 cards and value his suits separately, each card counting its face value (Ace-1, Jack, Queen and King – 11, 12 and 13 respectively).

The total value of the spade suit is multiplied by 4, the player whose hand has the highest aggregate is the winner.

I recently dealt a hand with more spades than hearts, in which no two cards had the same face value.  If the spades had been clubs, the hearts spades, the diamonds hearts and the clubs diamonds, my score would have been 27 more than it was.  If the spades had been diamonds, the hearts, clubs, the diamonds spades and the clubs hearts, my score would have been 30 less than what it was

If the spades had been hearts, the hearts diamonds, the diamonds clubs and the clubs spades, my score would have been 11 less than what it was.

If I had told you the color of the king in my hand, you could have deduced all the cards held.

21.              The total face value of the 13 cards was

a.       91

b.      66

c.       52

d.      39

22.              The total of spades was

a.       18

b.      16

c.       14

d.      12

23.              The total of hearts was

a.       12

b.      16

c.       18

d.      37

24.              The minimum number of clubs was

a.       0

b.      1

c.       2

d.      3

25.              The maximum number of spades was

a.       2

b.      3

c.       4

d.      5

For Questions 26 to 30, refer to the passage below:

In the razzle and dazzle of a competitive market, there were 4 competitors A, B, C and D battling out in the middle for market shares.  The sales in the first year are Rs.1,00,000.  For the sales of 100,000 units – the volumes shared by A, B C and D were in the ratio of 1:2:3:4 and the sales were in the ratio of 4:3:2:1 respectively.  The sales in the second year witnessed a sharp drop – both in volume terms as well as im rupee terms.  In volume terms, the demand fell by 60% and in sales terms the figure was 50%.  The shares of A, B, C and D in volume terms was 2:2:3:3 and that of the ratio of the prices charged was 9:6:3:1.  The market picked up dramatically in the third year – the volumes were the sum total sold in the first 2 years and the sales rose by 390% over that of the 2nd year.  For the 3rd year, sales by C amounted to Rs.84,000 which was 20% more than that made by A and thrice the sales of D.  The volumes shared in that year were in the ratio of 1:3:4:2

26.              In the second year, sales in rupee terms were in what ratio?

a.       12:8:3:2

b.      6:4:3:1

c.       10:9:12:4

d.      None of the above

27.              What was the ratio of the prices charged by the 4 companies in the third year?

a.       10:9:12:4

b.      10:3:3:2

c.       4:3:2:1

d.      None of the above

28.              What were the total sales (in Rs.) for the 3 years together?

a.       Rs.295,000

b.      Rs.490,000

c.       Rs.395,000

d.      None of the above

29.              Sales for company D increased by how many rupees from the 2nd year to the 3rd year?

a.       Rs.24,000

b.      Rs.78,000

c.       (Rs.6,000)

d.      None of the above

30.              What were the total number of units sold by company B over the 3 years?

a.       98,000

b.      70,000

c.       80,000

d.      None of the above

For questions 31 to 35 refer to the following:

A dealer wants to spend upto Rs.12 lakhs on buying color televisions (CTV) and video cassette recorders (VCR).  He wants to buy only 100 units (CTV and VCR included) as he has limited storage space:

Cost of VCR = Rs.12,000

Price of VCR = Rs.17,500

31.              How many CTV and VCR should the dealer buy to maximize his profit?

a.       50,50

b.      25,75

c.       75,25

d.      None of the above

32.              What is his maximum profit if selling price of CTV is Rs.12,200 and that of VCR is Rs.18,000?

a.       Rs.264,000

b.      Rs.550,000

c.       Rs.650,000

33.              If he can stock an extra 20 units and does so, what should be the number of CTV and VCR he can sell so as to maximize his profits?

a.       0.100

b.      120,0

c.       60,60

d.      None of above

34.              What is the total revenue when his profit is maximum?

a.       Rs.5.5 lacs

b.      Rs.15 lacs

c.       Rs.17.5 lacs

d.      None of the above

35.              If the cost of A CTV now goes upto Rs.12,000 and the price of a VCR goes down to Rs.16,000 what would be his maximum profit?

a.       Rs.4 lacs

b.      Rs.5 lacs

c.       Rs.5.5 lacs

d.      None of the above

Directions:  For question No. 36 to 68, choose the best alternative:

36.              A consultant whose annual earnings aeraged Rs.40,000 over a period of 12 years, earned 75% of less of his average earnings annually in four of these years.  If his earnings in any one year did not exceed Rs.49,000, then what is the minimum number of years in which his yearly earnings must have exceeded Rs.40,000?

a.       3

b.      2

c.       4

d.      5

37.              A car can travel 30 km per hour uphill and 60 km per hour downhill.  If it had traveled 100 km, uphill and 50 km, down hill, the average speed of the car in km/hr was

a.       36

b.      40

c.       45

d.      48.5

38.              A hockey team of 11 players is to be selected from 15 persons.  How many teams can be formed and in how many of these teams will two particular persons be always included?

a.       1295,570

b.      1295,715

c.       1365,715

d.      1365,570

39.              A precious stone has its price proportional to the square of its weight.  One such stone broke into 4 pieces by a accident.  The weights of these pieces are in the ratio of 1:2:3:4.  If the loss in total price amounts to Rs. 70,000, then the price of the original piece is

a.       Rs.90,000

b.      Rs.140,000

c.       Rs.70,000

d.      Rs.100,000

40.              The numerator and the denominator of a fraction are in the ratio 1:2.  If 8 is subtracted from the numerator, then the resulting fraction would be one-third of the original fraction.  The numerator of the original fraction is

a.       24

b.      18

c.       38

d.      12

41.              The integers x, y and z are each perfect squares, and x > y > z > 0.  If x,y and z form an arithmetic progression, then the smallest possible value of x is

a.       56

b.      38

c.       61

d.      49

42.              There are exactly 4 positive integers n such that  is an integer. Compute the largest such n.

a.       461

b.      338

c.       517

d.      623

43.              When Sultan Ikram Ali Khan died, he left 3,465 gold pieces to be divided equally among his children.  Each wife had the same number of children and this number was 8 less than the number of wives per harem, which in turn was 4 more than the number of harems and 4 less than the number of gold pieces each child received.  How many children did ikram ali khan have?

a.       186

b.      231

c.       212

d.      194

44.              A contractor estimated that one of his two bricklayers would take 9 hours to build a certain will and the other 10 hours.  However, it was known from experience that when they worked together, 10 fewer bricks got laid per hour.  Since he was in hurry, he had put both men on the job and found it took exactly 5 hours to build the wall.  How many bricks did it contain?

a.       1020

b.      860

c.       900

d.      960

45.              If the sum 1+ 2 + 3 …. + K is a perfect square (N2) and if N is less than 100, then the possible value(s) of K are

a.       1 and 8

b.      Only 8

c.       8 and 49

d.      1, 8 and 49

46.              If n1, n2…np are p positive integers whose sum is an even number, then the number of odd integers among them is

a.       p/3

b.      p/2

c.       Even

d.      Odd

47.              In certain shipment, x out of every y items were found to be defective.  If 10 defective items were found in the shipment, what was the total number of items in the shipment?

a.       10y/x

b.      10x/y

c.       10y

d.      10y/(y-x)

48.              For sending one wagon of wheat, Food Corporation of India spends Rs.300 for a distance of 20 kilometers and Rs.500 for a distance of 200 kilometers.  The cost of sending a wagon through 400 kilometers is

a.       Rs.7000/9

b.      Rs.7500/9

c.       Rs.6500/9

d.      Rs.6000/9

49.              The value of p such that one root of the equation 15x2 – px + 120 = 0 is the square of the other is

a.       65

b.      84

c.       90

d.      58

50.              If r = s/3 and 4r = 5t, what is s in terms of t?

a.       4t/15

b.      15t/4

c.       4t

d.      5t

51.              let set S = (a1,a2,a3.. a12), where all 12 elements are distinct.  We wish to form sets each of which contains one or more of the elements of set S (including the possibility of using all the elements of S.)  The only restriction is that the subscript of each element in a specific set must be an integral multiple of the smallest subscript in the set.  For example  (a2,a6,a8) is an acceptable set, as is (a6).  How many such sets can be formed?

a.       4096

b.      2240

c.       1984

d.      2102

52.              Let A and B represent non-zero digits.  Let AA represent a two digit number with identical digits.  If B  times the cube of A is a four-digit number whose tenth digit is 1, find the numerical value of B.

a.       8

b.      6

c.       7

d.      11

53.              A run 4.3 times as fast as B.   If A gives B a start of 45 metrs, then how far must the winning post be so that A and B might rech it at the same time?>

a.       33.40 meters

b.      12.80 meters

c.       100.00 meters

d.      58.64 meters

54.              Ticket for senior prom where Re.1 for boys and 65 paise for girls.  Although there were more boys than girls at the dance, the percentage of boys who did not go was twice the percentage of girls who did not go.  The total senior class enrollment is 81, of whom 54 are boys.  If the total receipts from the prom tickets was Rs.39, what was the total attendance at the prom?

a.       46

b.      26

c.       20

d.      36

55.              A certain physicist walks up a going escalator at the rate of one step per second.  Twenty steps bring him to the top.  Next day he goes up at two steps per second, reaching the top in 32 steps.  How many steps are there in the escalator

a.       80

b.      96

c.       72

d.      64

56.              Two motorists set out at the same time to go from A to B, a distance of 100 miles.  They both followed the same route and traveled at different though uniform, speeds of an integral number of miles per hour.  The difference in their speeds was a prime number miles per hour and after they had been driving for 2 hrs., the distance of the slower car from A was 5 times that of the faster car from B.  How fast did the two motorists drive?

a.       38 mph, 36 mph

b.      36 mph, 34 mph

c.       42 mph, 40 mph

d.      44 mph, 42 mph

57.              A and B can reap a field in 4 days, B and C can reap a field in 5 days, C and A can reap a field in 6 days.  In how many days can A atone reap the field?

a.       7

b.      120/13

c.       5

d.      6         

58.              If the average of 6, 11, 19 and d is lie between 19 and d, which of the following is true?

a.       D < 40

b.      D = 40

c.       D > 40

d.      None of the above

59.              Some 10% shares at Rs. 110 were sold after one year at Rs. 130.  The total gain was Rs.600.  What was the sum invested in the beginning?

a.       Rs.2000

b.      Rs.2200

c.       Rs.2400

d.      None of these

60.              a person’s salary is 6/5 times his salary the previous month.  His average salary in 4 months was Rs.1342.  What was his first month’s salary?

a.       Rs.800

b.      Rs.1000

c.       Rs.1200

d.      Rs.900

61.              450 mangoes were sold at 9%, 10% and 12% profit in three parts respecrtively.  The first two categories gave an overall profit of 9 3/7%.  All three categories gave an aggregate profit of 10%.  The number of mangoes in the first category was

a.       300

b.      200

c.       250

d.      240

62.              The sum of three integers is 10 and the sum of their reciprocals is 31/30.  The smallest of the integers is

a.       2

b.      3

c.       4

d.      5

63.              In a class of 45 students, the average age of the first 10 students is 15 years, that of the next 15 students is 18 years and that of the remaining students is 19.5 years.  Hence, the overall average age is

a.       25

b.      24

c.       20

d.      18

64.              In a language institute 45 students learn English and French and 34 students learn English and German.  For every 5 students learning English and French there is one who also learns German.  How many student learn exactly two languages?

a.       90

b.      92

c.       95

d.      100

65.              In a school 35 persons play hockey, 10 persons play football and hockey, 8 persons play cricket and hockey, 5 persons play all three games.  How may play only hockey but do not play cricket or football?

a.       20

b.      25

c.       22

d.      28

66.              In an office 30 persons like mangoes, 10 persons like mangoes and oranges both but do not like apples, 8 persons like mangoes and apples but do not like oranges, 4 persons like all three types of fruits.  How many like only mangoes but do not like apples and oranges?

a.       10

b.      12

c.       8

d.      9

67.              In a locality, 80 persons read only one newspaper out of 3, Times of India, Independent, and Indian Express, 30 persons read Times of India but do not read Indian Express or Independent; 20 persons read only Indian Express but do not read Times of India or Independent.  How many read only Independent but do not read Indian Express or Times of India?

a.       25

b.      40

c.       30

d.      35

68.              In tests of Chemistry, Maths, and Physics, 50 students passed in Chemistry but failed in Maths 20 students passed in Chemistry and Physics but failed in Maths.  How many students passed in Chemistry but failed in Maths and Physics?

a.       40

b.      30

c.       45

d.      36

DIRECTIONS; For Question No. 69-73, refer to the data below.

A survey of movie-going habits across five cities, A, B,C,D and E, is summarized below.  The first column gives the percentage of viewers in each city who watch movies less than once a week.  The second column gives the total number of viewers who view movies once a week or more.

City

I

II

A

B

C

D

E

60

20

85

55

75

2400

3000

2400

2700

8000

 

69.              The total number of all  movie goers in 5 cities who watch movies less than once a week is

a.       50,000

b.      36,000

c.       18,500

d.      42,250

70.              The highest number of movie watchers in any given city is

a.       36,000

b.      32,000

c.       16,000

d.      6,000

71.              The city with second lowest number of movie watchers is

a.       E

b.      D

c.       B

d.      C

72.              Which city has the highest number of viewer who watches movies, less than once a week?

a.       E

b.      D

c.       B

d.      C

73.              How many viewers in city C watch movies less than once a week?

a.       2,040

b.      13,600

c.       16,000

d.      3,600

DIRECTIONS: For Question No. 74 -78 refer to the data below.

At the start of a game of cards, J and B between them had 4 times as much money as T while T and B together had 3 times as much as J.  AT the end of the evening J and B between them had 3 times as much as T, while T and B together had twice as much as J, B finished Rs.200 poorer at the end.

74.              How much money did J have at the end of the game?

a.       Rs.375

b.      Rs.500

c.       Rs.325

d.      Rs.1,100

75.              What amount did T win (lose)?

a.       Lost Rs.50

b.      Won Rs.75

c.       Lost Rs.125

d.      Won Rs.175

76.              What amount did B start with?

a.       Rs.575

b.      Rs.375

c.       Rs.825

d.      Rs.275

77.              What fraction of the total money did J win (lose)?

a.       Won 1/12

b.      Lost 1/6

c.       Lost 1/3

d.      Won 1/5

78.              What fraction of the total money did T have at the beginning of the game?

a.       1/3

b.      1/8

c.       2/9

d.      1/5

DIRECTIONS: For Question No. 79-83, refer to the data below.

According to estimates, total demand for watches in India has shot up by 73% since 1980 to about 9 million pieces in 1988, 40 lakh pieces are of foreign make of which 1.5 million are smuggled.  Watches of Indian make account for 125% of foreign make.  Company A counts for 12% of Indian-make market while company B accounts for 18% and Company C accounts for nearly 60%.  Company C has around 1400 retail outlets and the average price is Rs.900 per piece.  Company B has an average price of Rs.600 and offers dealers a commission of 8% compared to 5% given by Company C.

79.              If average price of a smuggled watch is Rs.2,000 (which is the same as that of a foreign makes) and is 3 times the price of an Indian watch.  Smuggled watches form what percent of total market by value?

a.       26%

b.      30%

c.       34%

d.      38%

80.              How much does each dealer of company B earn in a year from sale of its watches?

a.       Rs.4.90

b.      Rs.0.97

c.       Rs.6,720

d.      Cannot be determined.

81.              Average sale per outlet per annum for company C in 1988 is

a.       Rs.19.3 lakhs

b.      Rs.27.8 lakhs

c.       Rs.1.93 lakhs

d.      Rs.2.78 lakhs

82.              Smuggled watches accounted for how many pieces in 1980?

a.       0.87million

b.      0.17 million

c.       1.5 million

d.      Can not be determined

83.              Total watches sold by company C in 1988 are

a.       30 million

b.      3 million

c.       0.3 million

d.      1.2 million

DIRECTIONS: Read the following passage for Question No. 84-86

A clock has an hour-hand, a minute-hand and a second-hand, all three pivoted to the center of the clock.  The time shown is 11:59:58.  By the time the three hands come to that position again.

84. How many times will the second-hand overtake the hour-hand?

a. 12

b. 360

c. 720

d. 43200

85. How many times will the second hand overtake the minute’s hand?

a. 12

b. 360

c. 720

d. 1440

86.  How many times will the minute-hand overtake the hour-hand?

a. 11

b. 12

c. 13

d. 10

DIRECTIONS: For Question 87 102, choose the best alternative.

87.A,B,C,D,E are participants in a group discussion on a topic of common interest.  If there are no rules governing the speakers, what is the chance of A speaking before B gets his turn?

a.       20%

b.      40%

c.       50

d.      60%

88. A message is whispered to one of the may Chinese present in a conference.  The nth Chinaman to receive the message would either add or delete n words from the message he received before passing it on.  If the nth operation is addition, the (n+ 1) th is a deletion and vice versa.  If the 243rd member passes on a message with 125 words after deleting 243 words to it, how many words were there in the original message?

a. 3

b. 247

c. 250

d. 4

89.       P and Q are 100 km apart.  A car leaves P at noon and is headed for Q at a uniform speed of 20 km/hr.  There is a bus once every half hour from Q to P.  If the bus service starts at 6 a.m. and the buses travel at a uniform speed of 25 km/hr, how many buses will encounter the car between P and Q?

            a. 17

            b. 15

            c. 9

            d.18

90.       A and B run in opposite directions from a point P on circle with different, but constant speeds.  A runs in the clock-wise direction.  They meet for the first time at a distance of 900 m in the clock-wise direction from P and for the second time at a distance of 800 m in the  anti clock-wise direction from P.  If B is yet to complete one round the circumference of the circle is

            a. 1700 m

            b. 1250 m

            c. 1300 m

            d. 1200 m

91.       A fruit merchant quoted Rs.6 for m fruits, but offered to reduce the price by 25 paise per fruit if 2 more are bought, thus keeping his income constant.  What is m?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 6

92.       It takes 8, 12 and 16 days for A, B and C to complete a task respective.  How may days will it take if A works on the job for 2 days and B carries it till 25% of the job is left for C to do and C completes the work?

            a. 10 days

            b. 14 days

            c. 13 days

            d. 12 days

93.       There are 2 toy cars facing each other at a distance of 500 cm., apart.  Each car moves forward for 100 cm. at a speed of 50 cm/s and moves backward for 50 cm. at a speed of 25 cm/s.  How long will it take for them to collide for the first time?

            a.            12 seconds

            b. 14 seconds

            c.            16 seconds

            d. 13 seconds

94.       The market price ‘p’ of a share is calculated using the formula p = PEM x EPS where EPS denote the earnings per share in a particular accounting period and PEM denotes the Price-Earnings Multiple applicable to the industry.  If PEM drops by 20% and EPS goes up by 20%, then the market price of the share

            a.            Increase by 4%

            b. Decreases by 4%

            c. Remains unchanged

            d. Decreases by 4.5%

95.       A opens a bank account by depositing Rs.20,000.  At the end of each year, he withdraws some money that makes the balance exactly half of what it was at the beginning of that year.  If the bank pays 10% interest, then his total withdrawals by the end of 3 years is

            a. Rs.17,500

            b. Rs.18,500

            c. Rs.19,000

            d. Rs.21,000

96.       There are 3 cubes in a box.  On one face of each cube are the numbers 1, 2 and 3 respectively.  The cubes are drawn one after the other with replacement.  What is the probability of nth draw producing the cube numbered ‘n’ for n = 1, 2 and 3?

            a. 1 3/27

b. 1/6

c. 1

d. 1/27

97.       A, B and C enter into a partnership with an agreement to share the profits from the business in the ratio of their shares.  A and B plough back their profit share into the business.  The firm made profits of Rs.4,000 in the first year and Rs.6,000 in the second year.  If their shares are in the ratio of 1:1:1 in the second year and 2:2:1 in the third year, then what is the ratio of their shares at the inception?

            a. 1:2:2

            b. 2:1:2

            c. 1:1:2

            d. 1:2:1

98.       There are 5 different routes connecting two different places X and Y in a city.  The number of ways in which a round trip from X to X can be made so that the route of Y to X is different from the route from X to Y is

            a. 25

            b. 20

            c. 10

            d. none of the above

99.       If f(x) n= 1/ x+1 then f(f(f(x))) is

            a. x + 1 / x + 2

            b. 1 / x+ 1

            c. 2x + 1

            d. x + 2 / 2x + 3

100.     If the operations; and are defined as a ; b = 1 + a + b + ab and a.b = ab, then what will be the value of the expression 1 + a; (b.c)?

            a. c + ac + bc + abc

            b. 1 + a + bc + abc

            c. 1 + c + ac + bc + abc

            d. 2 + a + bc + abc

101.     Find the following sum : 12 = 22 + 32 + 42 + 52 – 62 + .. (2n-1)2 – 2(n)2

            a. n(n+1)

            b. –n(2n+1)

            c. n(2n-1)

            d. (n+1) (2n+1)

102.     A merchant buys 20 kgs of rice at Rs.3 per kg and 40 kgs of rice at Rs.2.50 per kg.  He mixes them and sells one third of the mixture at Rs.2.00 per kg.  The price at which the merchant may sell the remaining to earn a profit of 255 on his total outlay is

            a. Rs.4.00

            b. Rs.4.30

            c. Rs.3.70

            d. Rs.3.60

Directions:  Question No. 103-112 choose the best alternative

103      If 9x – 10(3x) + 9 = 0, the values of x that will satisfy the equation is

            a. 0.3

            b. 2,3

            c. 0,2

            d. 2,4

104.     In a factory manufacturing engineering components, the rejection rate of – Friday’s production was 5% and for Saturday’s production was 8% and for both the day’s production together was 7%.  What was the ratio of Saturday’s production to that of Friday’s production?

            a. 2

            b. 3

            c. 0.5

            d. 0.3

105.     The weight of the carboy alone is 10% of the weight of the carboy filled with a certain chemical.  After some chemical has been removed, the weight of the carboy and the remaining chemical is 50% of the total original weight.  What fractional part of the chemical has been removed?

            a. 4/9

            b. 5/9

            c. ½

            d. 2/3

106.     If f(x) = (x+1) (x +2) .. (x+100), then f(0) is

            a. (1.2) + 2.3) + (3.4)+..+ (99.100)

            b. 100!

            c. 100!(1+1/2 + 1/3 +.. 1/100)

            d. 1+2+3+..+100 /100!

107.     What is the least prime number which is a divisor of 79 + 1125?

            a. 1

            b. 2

            c. 3

            d. 5

108.     Three bys agree to divide a bag of marbles in the following manner.  The first boy takes more than half the marbles.  The second takes a third of the number remaining.  The third boy finds that he is left with twice as many marbles as the second boy.  The original number of marbles is

            a. 8 or 28

            b. 20 or 26

            c. 14 or 32

            d. Cannot be uniquely determined.

109.     Ram covered a distance of 50 kms. On his first trip.  On a later trip, he traveled 300 kms while going 3 times as fast.  His new time as compared with the old time is

            a. A third as much

            b. Twice as much

            c. Thrice as much

            d. The same

110.     If x < x < 5 and 3 < y < 6, which of the following describes all of the possible values of x-y?        

            a. -4 < x-y < 1

            b. -4 < x-y < 2

            c. -1 < x-y < 1

            d. -1 < x-y < 11

111.     The fraction  was obtained by adding the fractions  The values of A and B are

            a. A = 7, B = 11

            b. A = -11, B = 7

            c. A = 3,B = 4

            d. A = 5, B, B = -3

112.     A packet containing 100 gms of cashew nut and 400 gms of peanuts costs Rs.20.  Another packet containing 200 gms of strawberries and 100 gms of cashew nuts costs Rs.68.  A third packet containing 400 gms of almonds, 200 gms of cashew nuts and 200 gms of strawberries costs Rs.80.  How much will one pay for a mixture of 400 gms containing equal weights of the four ingredients?

            a. Rs.168

            b. Rs.42

            c. Rs.56

            d. Cannot be determined


 

 

Data Adequacy

 


 
 

 
 

 

Directions:  Each of the following problems has a question and two statements which are labeled (I) and (II)  Use the data given in (I) and (II) together with other available information (such as the number of hours in a day, the definition of clockwise, mathematical facts, etc.) to decide whether the statements are sufficient to answer the question.  Then mark the answer as

a.      If statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient

b.      If statement (II) alone is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient.

c.       If both the statements (I) and (II) together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient

d.      If statement (I) and (II) together are not sufficient.

All number used in this section are real numbers.  A figure given for a problem is intended to provide information consistent with that in the question, but not necessarily with the additional information contained in the statements.

 

113.          The sum of the digits of a five digit number is 10.  The digit in the ten thousandth place is cube of that in the unit’s place.  What is the number?

I.                    The digits in the thousandth, hundredth and tentch places are equal.

II.                 The digits in the unit’s and tenth place are not equal

114.          If I deposit Rs.100 in the bank now and withdraw only at the end of 10 years, how much will I get?

I.                    The rate of compound interest is 12% per year.

II.                 Interest is calculated and deposited in the bank at the end of every 6 months.

115.          Are there 53 Sundays this year?

I.                    The year starts on a Thursday.

II.                 This year has 366 days.

116.          In the summer of 1990s there was only one Economics course and one Business course taught in a small college.  If 3 girls dropped Business and 4 boys added it, while 2 girls dropped and 3 boys added Economics, how many girls are still taking the Business course?

I.                    There were 12 students in the Economics class at the beginning

II.                 There are the same number of students in the two classes after add and drop.

117.          Three executives in American Express Bank got a 3%, 4% and 5% salary raise, respectively.  What were their salaries before the raise?

I.                    The sum of the salaries of the three before the raise was Rs.4,70,000.

II.                 They got the same raise in terms of rupees.

Directions :  For question No.118-112 arrange the sentences A, B, C, D in a logical sequence between the sentences I and 6 so as to make logical sense.

118.           

1.            All life on earch – from the lowliest rock-bound lichen to the mightiest philosopher – exists because of a dual miracle of chemistry called photosynthesis and respiration.

A.           Through respiration, both plant and animal cells take in oxygen and use it to turn sugar and other food into energy; the byproducts of respiration, water and carbon dioxide, are returned to the atmosphere to be used once again in photosynthesis.

B.            Through photosynthesis, a plant cell traps a tiny amount of the sun’s radiant energy and uses it to convert water (from the soil and carbon dioxide from the air) into sugar and oxygen.

C.           This cycle of life is endlessely repeated.  A cow eats the plants and by respiration uses the sugar’s energy to produce milk and flesh; man uses the milk to quench his thirst and the flesh to assuage his hunger.

D.           And with the nergy so provided, he plants more grain and scales mountains.

6.            Sunlight, photosynthesis and respiration sustain all life.

a.            BCAD

b. BACD

c. CDBA

d. CABD

119.       

1.      Food shortages of future may be overcome not with greater quantities of plants, animals and fish, but by creation of completely new foods.

A.     The most common form of genetic engineering has ben plant hybridization, like that which produced the Green Revolution’s remarkable dwarf wheat and rice.

B.      Scientists have long been aware of the enormous potential of genetic engineering – combining the cells of two different organizations to produce a new and superior breed.

C.           A significant step in that direction has already been made at Borlaugh Research Center at Medico.

D.           But whereas most hybrids are the products of closely related parents, future combinations may involve totally different life forms.

6.            By crossbreeding two distant relatives, whereas and rye the researchers came up with a completely different cereal grain called Triticale that blends the high food yi8eld of wheat with the ruggedness and disease resistance of rye.

a.            ADCB

b.            BADC

c.            CABD

d.            DCBA

120.       

1.            The appetite regulator, often called the “appestat” is now known to be housed in an area at the base of the brain known as the hypothalamus.

A.           The other called the “satiety center” counteracts this urge.

B.            One, known as the ‘feeding center’ initiates the urge to eat.

C.           Within the appestat are two distinct groups of cells, or control centres.

D.           In a normal person, when the demand of the body for energy – producing food has been satisfied the safety center signals the feeding center to half further intake.

6.            But in some people, the satiety center apparently fails to operate properly and the victim literally “doesn’t know when to stop eating”

a.            DCBA

b.            BACD

c.            CBAD

d.            ACBD

121.

1.            The spices of the East were valuable in Vasco Da Gama’s time, as they had been for centuries, because they count be used to stretch Europe’s always inadequate supply of food.

A.           A pound of mace was worth three sheep on half a cow.

B.            Vasco Da Gama’s successful voyage intensified and international power struggle over spice.

C.           Pepper, the most valuable spice of all, was counted out in individual peppercorns, and a sack of pepper was said to be worth a man’s life.

D.           During the Middle Ages, a pound of ginger was worth a sheep.

6.            For three centuries afterwards the nations of Western Europe – Portugal, Spain, France, Holland and Great Britain – fought bloody wars for spice producing colonies and the control of the spice trade.

a.            CADB

b.            ACBD

c.            BDCA

d.            DACB

122.

1.            Food is the fuel that makes the human machine work.

A.           In making this calculations, the total potential energy is measured in a heat unit called a food calorie.

B.            Man obtains this energy from the food he eats: he burns food, much as an automobile burns gasoline or  a steam engine burns coal.

C.           The energy that food can provide determines the quantity of food that it required by the body.

D.           Like an engine, when the human body is functioning, it is expending energy; energy is required to breathe, to walk, to stand, to move a finger, even to think.

6.            The calorie rating given to food – 75 calories for a slice of white bread, for example – simply indicates the amount of heat energy theoretically contained in that food.

a.            BCAD

b.            CBDA

c.            DBCA

d.            ADBC

Directions:  For Questions 123-127 each sentence given below is followed by four others.  Select from among the four choices the one which most logically complements the idea contained in the given sentence.

123.                      In many forms of life, from plants to amn, increases in size and complexity are accompanied by…

a.       The inevitable complication of environment

b.      Spectacular changes in form

c.       The slowing down of growth

d.      The speed of extinction.

124.                      If an ant were as big as a horse, could it move mountains? No; giant ant….

a.       Would be a structural failure

b.      Would never be able to move move mountains

c.       Would be a mere curiosity

d.      Would never be able to hunt for food

125.                      If a man is definitely a thick type rather than a broad or long type, he is likely to be round and soft, with a big chest…

a.       But a bigger belly

b.      And a big heart

c.       And a thick, luxuriate growth of hair on his skin.

d.      But a small girth

126.                      Civilized people are not alone in having grasped the idea of superstitious beliefs and practices that are superseded but

a.       Are still widely cherished

b.      Are universally followed

c.       Are widely recommended

d.      That may still evoke compliance

127.                      We would all lead more contened and satisfying lives if we judged people not by the symbols they display but by…

a.       The displays they symbolize

b.      Their individual worth

c.       The simple brilliance they emit

d.      The human warmth they display

Directions:  For Questions 128-132 identify which three of the six statements given are logically connected.

128.    

A.           No song is poetry

B.            All poetry stems from myth

C.           All poetry is unrhythmic

D.           Some myths can be sung

E.            All songs are rhythmic

F.            No myth is poetry and song

a.            ABF

b.            CEA

c.                        FED

D.           BCE

129.

A.           All dams are made to generate benefits

B.            The biggest dam gives the greatest benefits

C.           No dam gives sustained benefits to society

D.           All dams are big structures

E.            Bigger structures give more benefits

F.            Some oral examinations are fraudulent

a.                        BAF

b.            EBC

c.                        ABC

d.            AEC

130.       

A.           All written examinatioins are fraudulent

B.            Some oral examinations are not fraudulent

C.           Some admissions are not fraudulent

D.           Admissions are based on many criteria

E.            Some admissions are based on written examinations.

F.            Some oral examinations are fraudulent

a.                        BAF

b.            EBC

c.                        ABC

d.            AEC

131.

A.           Some bigots are chauvinists

B.            Some fanatics are dangerous

C.           All fanatics are bigots

D.           All chauvinists are dangerous

E.            Some fanatics are chauvinists

F.            Some bigots are dangerous

a.                        CAE

b.            CDE

c.                        AEF

d.            BEC


 

132.       

A.           Chemicals are corrosive

B.            Corrosiveness is an attribute of chemicals

C.           XYZ is a chemical

D.           LPQ is a chemical

E.            All corrosive things are chemicals

F.            LPQ is corrosive

a.            BCD

b.            ABF

c.            ADF

d.            ABD

 

Directions : For Question No. 133-135 refer to the data below.

5 one rupee coins, 5 fifty-paise coins and 5 twenty five paise coins have been randomly distributed among A, B and C such that all of them get equal number of coins.

133.        If a has only one denomination and C has less than Rs.2.25, then

I.             A has Rs.5

II.            B has Rs. 2.50

III.          C has one fifty-paise and four twenty-five paise coins.

IV           C and B have the same amount

a.            (I) and (II) of the above

b.            (II)  and (III) of the above

c.            Only (IV)

d.            Cannot be determined

134.        If all have only 2 types of coins but B has more than Rs.4.25, then

I.             A has Rs.4.50

II.            B has Rs.4.50

III.          A has less than Rs.2.50

IV.          C has more than Rs.150

a.            Only (I0

b.            (I), (II) and (III) of the above

c.            (II), (III) of the above

d.            (II), (III) and (IV) of the above

135.        If A has maximum possible amount, then

I.             B has less than Rs.3

II.            C has Rs.2.50

III.          B and C together have Rs.3.75

IV.          A has Rs.5

a.            (I) and (II) of the above

b.            (I), (II) and (III) of the above

c.            (I), (III) and (IV) of the above

d.            Cannot be determined

 

Directions: For question No. 136-140 refer to the data below.

In a card set, there are twelve cards, King, Queen and Jack of three suits, Diamond, Spade and Clubs.  These cards have been randomly distributed among 3 men A, B and C.  Each of the three men lies about their own cards but not about their opinion of what others have.

136.        B says “I have no Diamond cards,” A says “I have Clubs King.” C concludes that B has only one Diamond card that id Diamond King and he also has clubs King and A has no King,” Hence

I.             C has four Diamond cards

II.            C has the Spade King

III.          C has Spade Jack

IV           C has four clubs cards

a.            (I) , (II) and (III) of the above

b             Both (I) and (IV) of the above

c             Both (I) and (II) of the above

d             None of the above

137.        A says “Not all my cards are some suit. “B concludes that C has Diamond queen.  This mean

I.             B has two Queens

II             B has at least one Diamond card

III           N has one Queen

IV           A has only Clubs

 

a.            Both (I) and (II) of the above

b             Both (II) and (IV) of the above

c             Both (II) and (III) of the above

d             Cannot be determined

138.        C declares “I have no King”.  A concludes that B has no King with him. Hence

I              C has a King

II             A hs a King

III           A has two Kings

IV           B has a Queen

 

a             Only (IV)

b             Only (I)

c             Only (III)

d             (I) and (III) of the above

139         B says, “I think C has no Clubs cards. “Hearing this A concludes to himself that C must have four Diamond cards. Hence

I              B has all Clubs cards

II             A has three Diamonds and one Spade cards

III           C has Diamond King

IV           A has four Spades

 

a             Only (I)

b             Only (III)

c             (I) and (IV) of the above

d             Cannot be determined

 

140         A says, “I have all the Aces” hearing this B concludes in his mind that C has atleast one Ace.  Which of the following is true?

a.            A has atleast one Ace

b             B has only one Ace

c             B has no Aces

d             Cannot be determined

 

Vocabulary and Writing Skills

Directions: For questions 141 to 148 each word below in capital letters is followed by four words or phrases.  Choose the one which is farthest from the possible meanings of the word in capital letters.

 

 

141.    CROSS

a.             Vexed

b.            Oppose

c.             Mixture

d.            Path

142.    ASSOCIATE

a.       Relate

b.      Friend

c.       Help

d.      Gather

143.    BORE

a.       Tide

b.      To weary

c.       Hole

d.      Drill

144.    BEARING

a.       Station

b.      Carry

c.       Relevance

d.      Appearance

145.    CLEAR

a.       Perspicuous

b.      Vindicate

c.       Transparent

d.      Conscience

146.    QUALIFICATIONS

a.       Accomplishment

b.      Characterization

c.       Modification

d.      Education 

147.    PRECIPITATE

a.       Sloping

b.      Rash

c.       Rainfall

d.      Accelerate

148.    SKELETON

a.       Skull

b.      Sketchy

c.       Frame

d.      Structure

 

Directions : For Questions 149-155 read the following sentences and identify errors of grammar, usage and spelling.

Mark (a) if the sentence has one error.

Mark (b) if the sentence has two errors.

Mark (b) if the sentence has three or more errors

Mark (d) if the sentence has no errors

149.     The girl was indeed surprised by the warmth and pleasantry of her reception considering all she had head of her hostesses rudeness,

150.     So far no computer has become a chess master; the ten best chess players have nothing to fear from any present machine.

151.     He thought he had key to the problem but he found he did not get at the heart of it.

152.     My grandfather believed that unless children were not trained properly they would develop faults of character that would later became fixed so firmly that they could not be routed out.

153.     Anyone wanting a successful college career must devote much of their time to studying

154.     The estimate includes the cost of constructing the driveway, a rest house and lighting fixtures.

155.     My brothers’ problem is not that he earns little money, but spending foolishly.

Directions:  for Questions 155 to 164 each sentence is broken up into four sections (a), (b) , (c) and (d).  Choose the section which has a mistake.

156.     a.            The passenger

            b. It turned out

            c.            Neither had gold

            d. Nor narcotic drugs

157.     a.            Serenity of mind

            b. And good temper

            c.            Through all difficulties

            d. Is indispensable

158.     a.            Helicopter pilot was now

            b. Close to the wreck

            c.            Which he had been instructed to examine

            d. But he had never seen it before

159.     a.            It is to the Prime Minister

            b. And such men as he

            c.            That we must be grateful

            d. For a period of tranquility

160.     a.            Verbal communication

            b. Only transfers

            c. About 25 percent

            d. Of our meaning

161.     a.            Women’s duties

            b. In the olden times consisted of

            c. Cooking, raising children

            d. and to do heavy house work

162.     a.            I have hardly some money

            b. But I will

            c. Try my best

            d. To help him in his trouble

163.     a.            Though I changed my

            b. Residence six year ago

            c. My club keeps sending my

            d. Letters on my old address

164.     a.            The poor girl

            b. Wept bitterly

            c. Tears streamed

            d. On her cheeks

165.     a.            In my opinion, I think

            b. We should immediately

            c. Abolish

            d. All linguistic states

 


 

 

Reading Comprehension

 


 

Read the following passage and answer the given questions.           

For 9 ½ hours the sate – caked with earth, puddle with water and transformed into a dusty plain in primeval India – resonates with such ritual images, hunting metaphors, aphoristic dialogue and spiritual searching.  The event, viewable in a marathon day or in three installments, is the Mahabharata, the most ambitious production yet by Peter Brook, 62, the visionary elder statesman among stage amateur directors.

The source material is the longest epic of world literature, a 100,000 – stanza poem about seven times the combined length of the Iliad and Odyssey.  Like those works, the Mahabharata is a glorious welter of incident and digression, evolving not just a central story of ruinous war but an array ofmuths and human archetypes and an animal world aquiver with magic.  It would be hard to overstate its role as a wellspring of Indian culture.  Brook, however, was drawn to its transcending themes : man’s joyous awakening to nature and love and duty, the menacing lures of vanity and ambition and war.

The theatrical experience he has fashioned is part religious pageant, part sermon, part military panoply and part celebration of the reverbant power of language of vows, of course, of omens.  Above all it glories in the eternal reign of the storyteller, whose chronicles outlast the might of the captains and kings and, yes even Gods who figure in his tales.  At one point, a deity confronts the poet who is purportedly narrating the epic and demands, “Vyasa, which of us has invented the other?”.  That is art at its most self-aggrandizing.  Yet how indeed does man to comprehend anything beyond his immediate world if not through the artist?  The Mahabharata is studded with such observations and moves at a pace leisurely enough to allow audiences to ponder them a moment – but too deeply before being caught up in the next fable, the next tapestry brought to life.  If not always intense or profound, the result is in the end hypnotically satisfying.

In its blend of spectacle with simplicity, the Mahabharata recalls the Royal Shakespeare Company’s Nicholas Nickleby and the medieval religious play cycle produced in 1985 by Britain’s National Theater.  Brook’s stage blazes with light and colour – not from some high-tech console but from torches and candles and vivid carpets methodically unrolled across the ground.  There are no turntables or massive set pieces, no cinematic special effects.  The  tone of the talk – conversational but carefully not colloquial – suggests listening to a tribal elder around the fire.  Like the Bible, the Mahabharata is a creation epic stretching over generations.  And like Nickleby, Brook’s adaptation depicts how a man must unravel his heritage and true identity to break a cycle of suffering.  After hours of battle and description of a field strewn with 18 million corpses, the final scene shows orderly the narrator prepares the audience to disregard this vision with the warning that justice is merely another of life’s illusions.  In Western civilization, tragedy is defined by the Greek notion of a self-imposed flaw; it can be avoided.  In the Mahabharata, the essence of tragedy is its inevitability.  Even those who foresee what is coming simply submit to fate.

Brook inevitably simplifies the story and philosophy, at times vergin on a kind of Eastern Philosophy’s greatest hits glibness; the original epic’s most famous section, the Bhagavadgita, is compressed into a few offhand remarks.  The production is international in the best and worst senses; at times universal, at times merely polyglot.  Brook is British, playwright Jean Claude Carrier, author of many screenplays, including six for Luis Bunnel, is French.  The thirty actors come from West Germany, Poland, Senegal, Trinidad, Turkey and Bali, among other places an at lest seven are making English-language acting debuts.  Whatever the work and fable, blessed with an unfailing sense of wonder.

166.     The passage is a critical appreciation of

a.   A dramatic presentation

b.   A film of epic magnitude

c.   An epic

d.   A highly popular musical

167.     It can be inferred that Peter Brook was fascinated by the Mahabharata

a.         For its judicious mixture of incident and digression.

b.         For its being the wellspring of Indian culture

c.         For its close resemblance to the Iliad and the Odyssey

d.         None of the above

168.     The image of ‘listining to  tribal elder around the fire’ (para 4) would suggest that much of the dialogue is

a.         Authoritative in tone and one-sided

b.         A free and frank exchange of views

c.         Simple and dignified

d.         Essentially mystical and philosophical

169.     The sources of tragedy according to the Western belief is /are

a.         The wrath of gods

b.         Natural calamities

c.         Inevitable occurrences

d.         The imperfections of man

170.     Which one of the following, according the author, is not one of the minor flaws of the work?

a.         There is, at times, an oversimplification of the story and the philosophy of the Mahabharata

b.         The Bhagvadgita is given a cursory treatment

c.         The production, at times, gives the impression of being too universal.

d.         At times, the dialogue is flawed by glib utterances

171.     The narrator of the story asks people not to believe in the bliss of happy everyday life ‘ unfolding along a river bank’ because

a.         He firmly believes that happiness is ephemeral

b.         According to him, battlefields are more near to human existence than river banks

c.         He believes that justice and fairplay is an illusion

d.         He wants to put the audience in a receptive frame of mind for the next episode.

172.     It can be inferred that a creation epic

a.         Is high creative

b.         Is entirely the creation of the poet

c.         Necessarily involves tragic elements pertaining to creation

d.         None of the above

173.     The Mahabharata is full of all the following, except

a.         A welter of incidents

b.         The story of a catastrophic war

c.         Numerous myths

d.         Magic and occult happenings

174.     Which of the following statement is false?

a.         The Mahabharata is the world’s longest epic

b.         The Frenchman involved in the production is Jean Claude Carriers

c.         Most of the actors in the play are not Indian

d.         Nicholas Nickleby is a medieval religious play.

175.     Which of the following best expresses the meaning of the phrase – “self-aggrandizing” in the context (para 3)?

a.         Exaggerated and brash

b.         Elevated and exalted

c.         Inventive and creative

d.         Aggressive and challenging

 

Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

It is in the nature of things that those who are incapable of happiness should have no idea o it.  Happiness is not for wild animals who can only oscillate between apathy and passion.  To be happy, even to conceive happiness, you must be reasonable.  You must have taken the measure of your powers, tested the fruits of your passions and learned your place in the world and what things in it can really serve you.  To be happy you must be wise.  This happiness is sometimes found instinctively, and the rudest fanatic can hardly fail to having learned something by experience. And involves some chastening and renunciation; but is not less sweet for having this touch of holiness about it, and the spirit of it is healthy and beneficent.

176.        Which of the following could serve as an appropriate title for the passage?

a.       The Quest for Happiness

b.      The Joy of living

c.       The Essentials of True Happiness

d.      Are you happy

177.        The author considers all the following incapable of happiness, except

a.       Wild animals

b.      The crude and the unsophisticated

c.       The unreasonable

d.      The inexperienced

178.        “You must have taken the measure of your posers” would mean, one must

a.       Have experienced some amount of power.

b.      Have enjoyed power for some time at least

c.       Have tested the limits of ones abilities

d.      Have powerfully conceived happiness.

179.        Happiness, according to the author, may result through all the following except.

a.       Holiness of one’s thought and action.

b.      Wisdom

c.       Instinct

d.      Trials and tribulations

180.        Which of the following statements is  false?

e.       One who alternates between apathy and passion cannot enjoy happiness

f.        The young are too immature to enjoy true happiness

g.       Happiness found instinctively is better than the one that comes through chastening and renunciation.

h.       The unwise cannot savor true happiness.


 

 

KEY to Practice Test - 6

 

1. c

2. b

3. d

4. b

5. b

6. b

7. c

8. d

9. c

10. b

11. a

12. d

13. d

14. c

15. d

16. b

17. b

18. c

19. b

20. a

21. a

22. b

23. d

24. c

25. d

26. b

27. b

28. c

29. a

30. b

31. d

32. c

33. b

34. c

35. a

36. d

37. a

38. c

39. d

40. d

41. d

42. a

43. b

44. c

45. d

46. c

47. a

48. c

49. c

50. b

51. d

52. c

53. d

54. a

55. a

56. c

57. b

58. c

59. b

60. b

61. c

62. a

63. d

64. b

65. c

66. c

67. c

68. b

69. d

70. b

71. b

72. a

73. b

74. b

75. b

76. c

77. a

78. d

79. a

80. d

81. a

82. d

83. b

84. c

85. c

86. a

87. c

88. b

89. a

90. c

91. d

92. d

93. b

94. b

95. d

96. d

97. c

98. b

99. d

100. d

101. b

102. c

103. c

104. a

105. b

106. b

107. b

108. d

109. b

110. b

111. c

112. b

113. a

114. c

115. a

116. d

117. c

118. b

119. c

120. a

121. a

122. c

123. b

124. a

125. a

126. d

127. b

128. b

129. a

130. d

131. a

132. c

133. d

134. c

135. c

136. a

137. b

138. d

139. c

140. c

141. d

142. c

143. d

144. a

145. d

146. b

147. a

148. a

149. b

150. d

151. b

152. b

153. a

154. a

155. c

156. c

157. d

158. d

159. b

160. b

161. d

162. a

163. a

164. d

165. a

166. a

167. d

168. c

169. d

170. c

171. c

172. d

173.a

174. d

175. b

176. c

177. b

178. c

179. a

180. c