**IBSAT **

**
Practice Test – 2**

**
Quantitative Ability**

**
**

1. There are two taps in a tank, first one can drain the tank in 40 minutes, second one can do it in 1 hour 20 minutes. If both the taps are opened together, then the tank will be drained in

a. 36 minutes 20 seconds

b. 32 minutes 40 seconds

c. 28 minutes

d. 26 minutes 40 seconds

2. Find the value of x if x – 11 = 28/x

a. 8 and 5

b. -6 and 5

c. 7 and 4

d. 9 and -2

3. In Hyderabad, 80% of middle class population owned color TV and 70% owned refrigerator. If 60% owned both the items, then what percent of the population owned either a color TV or a refrigerator?

a. 90%

b. 60%

c. 50%

d. 30%

4. In a class room there are x rows and y desks in each row. If 5 desks remain vacant when all the students are present, then number of students in the class is

a. Xy + 5

b. Xy -5

c. x/y – 5

d. x + y – 5

5.
The 9^{th} term of a G.P. series whose 6^{th}
term is 32 is

a. 64

b. 128

c. 256

d. 512

6. Mr. Sriram has invested total of Rs.15 lakhs in the bonds of IDBI and ICICI. If IDBI bond yields 15% and ICICI bond yields 12% and he earned a total income of Rs.2.04 lakhs in the last year, the amount of investment in IDBI bond is

a. Rs.12 lakhs

b. Rs.10 lakhs

c. Rs.8 lakhs

d. Rs.7 lakhs

7. A start walking at 4 p.m. at a speed of 4 kmph. B starts at 5:30 p.m. towards him at a speed of 12 kmph. They will meet

a. 6 p.m.

b. 6:15 p.m.

c. 6:30 p.m.

d. 6:45 p.m.

8.
If a + b + c = 15 and a^{2} + b^{2} +
c^{2} = 77, then the value of ab + bc + ca is

a. 74

b. 94

c. 124

d. 148

9. The average of seven numbers is 21.6 and the average of first three numbers is 24.4, then the average of next four numbers is

a. 25.6

b. 22.5

c. 21.4

d. 19.5

10. A rice trader mixes two variants of rice in the ratio 1:3, and sell the mixture at Rs. 25 per Kg. If the cost of two variants are Rs. 20 and Rs. 25, then his profit per Kg is

a. Rs. 1.00

b. Rs. 1.25

c. Rs. 1.75

d. Rs. 2.00

11.
Simplify 2401^{¼} x 243 ^{1/5}

a. 18

b. 21

c. 24

d. 27

12. If a > b > c, then

a. 1/a > 1/b

b. 1/c < 1/b

c. 1/a < 1/c

d. 1/a > 1/c

13.
Find the values of x that satisfy x^{2} + 5 >
3x + 15

a. X > -2

b. X < -5

c. X > 2

d. X < 5

14. X owns 20% of the share of a company. Y owns 11000 shares of company. Z owns all the shares not owned by companies X or Y. How many shares of stock does X own if Y has 25% more shares than X

a. 4000

b. 8000

c. 14000

d. 20000

15. If the area of a square increases by 44%, then the side of the square increases by

a. 12%

b. 16%

c. 20%

d. 28%

16. If the ratio of areas of two squares is 5:4, then the ratio of the perimeter of the squares is

a. √5:4

b. √5

c. √5:2

d. 25:16

17. If sinӨ = (m – n) / (m + n), then secӨ is

a. m/n

b. mn/(m – n)

c. mn/[2 (m – n)]

d. (m+n) / [2√mn]

18.
The area of a square is equal to the area of a
rectangle. If the area of a square is 196 cm^{2} and length of the
rectangle is 28 cm, then the perimeter of the rectangle is

a. 72 cm

b. 70 cm

c. 68 cm

d. 64 cm

19. A discount series of 10%, 20% and 30% is equal to a single discount of

a. 42.6%

b. 49.6%

c. 58.2%

d. 66.4%

20. 5 men and 3 boys can do a work in 12 days. The same work can be done by 3 men and 3 boys in 16 days. Three boys can finish the job in

a. 32 days

b. 48 days

c. 56 days

d. 64 days

21. Two years ago X was twice as old as Y. If the current age difference between them is 2 years, the present age of Y is

a. 2

b. 4

c. 8

d. 12

22. A circle and square have a same are. The ratio of the side of the square and radius of the circle is

a. √7 : √22

b. 1 :π

c. 1 : √π

d. √22 : √7

23.
If the complement of an angle is 1/11^{th} of
its supplement, then the angle is

a. 87 degrees

b. 81 degrees

c. 77 degrees

d. 71 degrees

24. If the altitude of a triangle increases by 10% and the base increases by 5%, then the area of the triangle will increase by

a. 5%

b. 7.55%

c. 12.5%

d. 15.5%

25. A’s salary is 25% of B’s salary. B’s salary is 60% of C’s salary. The ratio of C’s salary to A’s salary is

a. 1:2

b. 2:3

c. 5:6

d. 3:2

26. If 1/3 + x/5 = x/20, then x=

a. – 40/3

b. 20/3

c. 23/5

d. 20/9

27. The cost of A type of rice is Rs.10 per kg. and the cost of B type of rice is Rs.12 per kg. If the price of A type rises by 10% per month, then in how many months the price of A type of rice will be higher than B type of rice?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

28. If a meter of cloth cost Rs. 40 and a buyer gets 10% quantity discount if he buys more than 100 meter, then the 500 meter cloth will cost

a. Rs.15000

b. Rs.16000

c. Rs.18000

d. Rs.20000

29. If 21 students in a class are female and the ratio of female students to male students is 3:7, the number of male students is

a. 35

b. 42

c. 49

d. 56

30. The time to be taken by a driver to cover final 80 km of a trip if he wants to average at 60 kmph for the entire trip and during the first part of the trip he drove 40 kmph for 1 ½ hours?

a. 40 minutes

b. 50 minutes

c. 70 minutes

d. 80 minutes

31. If 3a + 2b = 16 and ab = 8, then the value of 2/a + 3/b is

a. ½

b. 2

c. 3/2

d. 5/2

32. The sum of three digits is 17, the largest three digit number that can be formed using each of the digits exactly once is

a. 999

b. 872

c. 881

d. 944

33. The longest distance between the points of a cylinder of height 10 cm and radius 5 cm is

a. 5√5

b. 10√5

c. 5(2π + 1)

d. 10√2

34. The capital of a company is Rs.500000 and the face value of share is Rs.10. If the company pays a dividend of Rs. 85000 and Mr. X owns 200 shares, then the amount payable to X is

a. Rs.700

b. Rs.450

c. Rs.340

d. Rs.255

35. The sum of the squares of three numbers which are in the ratio of 1:2:4 is 189, then the numbers are

a. 2,4,8

b. 3,6,12

c. 4,8,16

d. 1,2,4

36. If two trains at a distance of 475 kms approach each other at 40 kmph they will meet after

a. 2 ½ hour

b. 4 ½ hour

c. 5 hour

d. 5 ½ hour

37. The batting average of Sourav Ganguly in last 25 innings is 45. His highest score exceeds his lowest score by 27 runs. If these two innings are excluded, the average becomes 39. His lowest score is

a. 8

b. 15

c. 21

d. 28

38. A container is 5/8 full, if 6 litre of oil is removed then the container is ¼ full. The total capacity of the container is

a. 24 liters

b. 18 liters

c. 16 liters

d. 12 liters

39. A number consists of three digits whose sum is 14, the middle digit is sum of the other two digits, and the first minus last digit is 3. The number is

a. 253

b. 275

c. 374

d. 572

40. The square root of 43 + 30√2 is

a. 3 + 5√2

b. 6 + 3 √2

c. 3√2 + 5

d. 3 + 4√2

41. If two items cost Rs.x, then how many items can be purchased for Rs.y?

a. x/2y

b. 2y/x

c. xy/2

d. 2xy

42.
Jadu and Madhu together have Rs.500. After giving
Rs.75 to Ratan, Madhu finds that he has Rs.25 more than 1/3^{rd} the
amount Jadu has. The amount of money Jadu has now is

a. 75

b. 300

c. 150

d. 200

43. Ram invested in bonds and stocks in the ratio of 3:2. The income earned from the bond is 8% and from stock is 10%. If the income earned from the bond is Rs.6000, the amount of investment in stocks is

a. 25,000

b. 50,000

c. 75,000

d. 1,00,000

44. The average of X numbers is m and the average of Y numbers is n. The average of all the numbers is

a. (m + n)/(X+Y)

b. (m+n)/2

c. (mX + nY)/[mn(X+Y)]

d. (mX + nY)/(X + Y)

45. The morning classes in a college begin at 8 a.m. and end at 12:30 p.m. If there are 5 classes in the morning session with five minutes break between each classes, then the time period for each class is

a. 40 minutes

b. 45 minutes

c. 50 minutes

d. 55 minutes

46. If 5 litre of milk contain 10% of water, then the ratio of milk and water after adding one more litre of water will be

a. 2:3

b. 5:3

c. 5:2

d. 3:1

47. If AB = 32 cm and AD = BC = 10 cm, DE ┴ AB and AB ║ CD, then the length of CD is

a. 6 cm

b. 8 cm

c. 12 cm

d. 16 cm

48. The HCF of two numbers is 28 and their LCM is 4032. If one of the numbers is 196, the other number is

a. 612

b. 576

c. 524

d. 478

49. Sum of the digits of a two digit number is 9. If the digits are reversed the number is increases by 45. The number is

a. 45

b. 18

c. 36

d. 27

50. The value of

a. 2.08

b. 3.04

c. 4.06

d. 5.00

51. P invested in a 10% bond quoting at Rs.95 of face value Rs.100. If he earned a interest income of Rs.1000, the amount invested is

a. Rs.10000

b. Rs.9500

c. Rs.9000

d. Rs.8000

52. If 10 men working 6 hours a day can do a piece of work in 15 days, then 12 men working 10 hours a day can finish the job in

a. 10 days

b. 8 ½ days

c. 7 ½ days

d. 9 days

53. The ratio of the ages of father and son is 3:1. After 5 year the ratio will become 5:2. The present age of son is

a. 12

b. 15

c. 16

d. 18

54. Ram buys an item at 20% discount on its marked price. He makes a profit of 20% by selling it at Rs.720. The marked price of the item is

a. Rs.700

b. Rs.720

c. Rs.750

d. Rs.800

55. A watch, which gains time uniformly is 5 minutes slow at 6 p.m. on Wednesday and is 9 minutes fast at 10 a.m. on the following Monday. It was correct on

a. Thursday at 10 p.m.

b. Friday at 2 a.m.

c. Saturday at 6 a.m.

d. Friday at 10 a.m.

56. Ravi and Shivam enter into a partnership with capitals at a ratio of 2:3. After 6 months Ravi withdraws his capital. If the annual profit to be shared at a ratio of 4:7, then the capital of Shivam remained invested for

a. 6 months

b. 7 months

c. 8 months

d. 10 months

57. A man is trying to climb a greased pole 42 metre high. If he climbs 2 meter in the first minute and slips down half metre in the second minute and this process continues, then the time taken by him to reach the top is

a. 40 minutes

b. 48 minutes

c. 56 minutes

d. 64 minutes

58. A rectangular garden of length 40 metre and breadth 25 metre wide concrete road in the middle of the garden stretching along the length and the breadth. If the cost of maintaining each square metre of grass is Rs.5 per month, the total cost of maintenance in a month is

a. Rs.4330

b. Rs.5240

c. Rs.6450

d. Rs.7620

59.
The value of 5^{8} + 25^{5} x √25 is

a. 1

b. 1/5

c. 5

d. 1/25

60. The value of

a. 0.09

b. 8.1

c. 0.81

d. 9

61. Three athletes start running in a 400 metre circular track. They completed their first lap in 44, 46 and 50 seconds respectively. After what time they will meet together at the starting point?

a. 180 minutes

b. 195 minutes

c. 210 minutes

d. 220 minutes

62.
If x = √3 + √2 and y = √3 - √2 , then the value of 2x^{2}
– 5xy + 2y^{2} is

a. 11

b. 15

c. 17

d. 19

63. The difference in volume of two cube is 218 c.c. and the difference in their one face areas is 24 cm2. If the sum of their edges is 12 cm, the product of their edges is

a. 35

b. 32

c. 27

d. 20

64. If a solid sphere of radius 3 cm is immersed in a cylindrical vessel of radius 6 cm, then the water level in the cylinder will rise by

a. 1.50 cm

b. 1.25 cm

c. 1.00 cm

d. 0.75 cm

65. Two trains of length 180 m and 170 m are running in opposite directions at a speed of 42 kmps and 48 kmph. They will cross each other in

a. 10 seconds

b. 12 seconds

c. 14 seconds

d. 15 seconds

66. If the price of an article is reduced by 30%, then to restore the original price, the new price must be increased by

a. 30%

b. 33 1/3%

c. 38 2/7 %

d. 42 6/7%

67. Two concentric circles have radius 6 cm and 8 cm. If a chord of the bigger circle is a tangent to the smaller circle, then the length of the chord is

a. 10 cm

b. 16 cm

c. 20 cm

d. 24 cm

68. To present the contribution of different sectors towards a country’s GDP in a pie chart, how many degrees should be used to represent 24% contribution of services sector

a. 30 degrees

b. 25 degrees

c. 18 degrees

d. 15 degrees

69. The length of a wire fence around a circular pond is 220 m. The area of 1 m road surrounding the fence is

a. 71π

b. 82 π

c. 98 π

d. 102 π

70. Four circles each of diameter 2 cm touch at the four points as shown in the figure. The area of the shaded portion is

a. 1 – π

b. 4 – π

c. 1 – π/4

d. 1 - 4 π

71. The volume of a right circular cone of radius ‘r’ is equal to the volume of a cuboid of length ‘I’. The height of the cone is

a.
3x / 1^{2} r^{2}

b.
3r^{2} / 1^{3}

c.
3 πr^{2} / 1^{3}

d.
31^{2} / πr^{2}

72. The vertices of a triangle ABC are (-4,0), (0.-7) and (0.8). The area of triangle ABC is

a. 25

b. 30

c. 35

d. 40

73. AB is a line segment joining points (5, 4) and (-8, 3). The co-ordinates of a point D dividing AV in the ratio 2:3 is

a. (-1/5, 7/5)

b. (-7/5, 1)

c. (1/5, 2/5)

d. (1/5, -7/5)

74. O is the centre of a circle of a circle and A) ┴ OB. The area of the triangle AOB is 128 cm2. What is the area of the shaded portion?

a. 128(1 – π)

b. 64 (2 – π)

c. 64 (π – 2)

d. 128 (π + 2)

75. IF AC/AE = 3, BC/BD = 3 and AB = 24 cm, then DE is

a. 8 cm

b. 12 cm

c. 15 cm

d. 9 cm

76. The area of the shaded portion is

a.
2a^{2}(π – 4)

b.
a^{2} (2 – π)

c.
2a^{2}(2 - 2 π)

d.
2a^{2} (4 – π)

77. ABCD is a square of side 6 cm and two semi-circles are constructed on the sides AD and BC> The area of the entire figure is

a. 4(9+ π)

b. 9 + 4 π

c. 9(4 + π)

d. 4 + 9 π

78. Point P (-5,3) is the mid-point of the line segment AOP, where O is the origin (0,0). The coordinates of P are

a. (3,5)

b. (5,-3)

c. (-5,3)

d. (5,3)

79. If an odd integer, then, which of the following is even?

a. (a – 2) (a +2)

b. 2a + 2

c. 2(a+1)

d. 2a + 1

80.
If 3.3^{x} = 81.(9)^{3/4}, then x is

a. 4

b. 4 ½

c. 5

d. 5 ½

**
**

**
Data Adequacy**

Directions: Each of the following problems has a question and two statements which are labeled (1) and (2) together with other available information (such as the number of hours in a day, the definition of clockwise, mathematical facts, etc.) to decide whether the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Then mark the answer as

a. If statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient.

b. If statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient.

c. If both the statements 1 and 2 together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.

d. If statement 1 and 2 together are not sufficient.

All number used in this section are real numbers. A figure given for a problem is intended to provide information consistent with that in the question, but not necessarily with the additional information contained in the statements.

81. At a marriage party, each of the guests were served with a single piece of sweet or two pieces of sweets. How many of the guests were served two pieces of sweets?

(1) At the party, 75% of the guests were served two pieces of sweets.

(2) All total 350 pieces of sweets were served to all the guests.

82. A conical jar is partly filled with water as shown in the figure. What is the volume of water in the jar?

(1) h = 2 cm and r = 3 cm

(2) The height of the cone is 10 cm.

83. A bread consists of flour and baking powder. What is the ratio of weights of flour and baking powder in the bread?

(1) 450 grams of flour is contained in the 500 grams of bread.

(2) 1 kg of baking powder is used in a batch.

84. What is the value of the given triangle?

(1) x + z = 160

(2) x + y = 128

85. If x and y are two consecutive positive numbers, then is x less than y?

(1) x+1 and y-1 are consecutive positive numbers.

(2) x is an even number.

86. If 3x – 5y + 4 = x – y, what is the value of x?

(1)
y^{2} = 25

(2) y = -5

87. How many employees the company have?

(1) If 5 of the present employees leave, then the company will have fewer than 20 employees.

(2) If 5 additional employees joined, then there will be at least 28 employees in the company.

88. If x and y are positive numbers, then what percent of y is x?

(1) x = 2/3y

(2) xy = 96

89. If a, b and c are three integers are they consecutive integers?

(1) a – c = 2

(2) a>b>c

90. If Suresh’s and Naresh’s annual salaries in 1999 are higher by 10% than the salaries in 1998, what was Suresh’s salary in 1998?

(1) The sum of their annual salaries in 1998 is Rs.2,80,000

(2) The sum of their annual salaries in 1999 is Rs.3,08,000

91. If 3x + 4y = 23, what is the value of y?

(1) y is a positive integer

(2) x = (1/5)y

92. If x and y are integers, is x + y divisible by 5?

(1) x is divisible by 5

(2) y is divisible by 5

93. An income of Rs.10,00,000 from an investment was divided among a spouse and three sons. How much of the income did the youngest son receive?

(1) The spouse received half of the income, and the oldest son received one-fourth of the remainder.

(2) Each of the two younger sons received Rs.62,500 more than the eldest son and Rs.3,12,500 less than the spouse.

94. Is the product xypq equal to 1?

(1) xy/pq = 1

(2) x = 1/y and p = 1/q

95. What is the radius of the circle given in the figure?

(1) The ratio of OM to MN is 2:3

(2) MN ┴ AB

96. Of the 450 flats built in a colony last year, how many were occupied at the end of the year?

(1) Of all the flats in the colony, 80% were occupied at the end of the last year

(2) A total of 6000 flats were occupied at the end of last year

97. In ICFAI Business Schools, 600 students study CFA or MCA or both. If 200 of these students do not study MCA, how many of the students study only CFA?

(1) Of the 600 students, 120 do not study CFA

(2) A total of 480 students study either CFA or MCA

98.
If 3^{x}(7^{y}) = z, what is the
value of z?

(1) x = y + 1

(2)
3^{x} = 81

99. Is x is a negative number?

(1) 5x > 6x

(2) x + is positive

100. Is the value of x closer to 50 than 100?

(1) x – 50 < 100 – x

(2) x > 65

**
Analytical Reasoning**

101. The cost of producing cars in India is 10% less than the cost of producing cars in China. Even after transportation charges and tariffs, it is stil cheaper for company to import cars from India to China than to produce cars in China.

The passage above, if true, best support which of the following statements?

a. Labor costs in India are 10% below those in China.

b. Importing cars from India to China

c. The tariff on a car imported from India to China is less than 10% of the manufacturing jobs in China.

102. Most Universities retain the royalties earned form books and articles they write. Therefore, faculty members should retain the royalities from the educational computer software they develop.

The above conclusion would be more reasonably drawn if which of the following were inserted into the argument as an additional premises?

a. Faculty members are most likely to produce educational software programs than inventions.

b. Inventions bring more prestige to universities than educational software

c. Royalities from inventions are higher than royalties from educational software programs.

d. In terms of the criteria used to award royalties educational software programs are more nearly comparable to books and articles than to inventions.

103. People tended to save more when there was a ban on nuclear-arms testing. But when nuclear arms testing increased worldwide, people tended to spend more of their money. The threat of nuclear catastrophe, therefore, decreased the willingness of people to postpone consumption for the sake of saving.

104. The above argument assumes that

a. There are more consumer goods available when nuclear-arms testing increases.

b. Exercise and weight reduction are the most effective method of lowering blood cholesterol

c. A program of regular exercise and weight reduction lowers cholesterol level in the blood of some individuals

d. Only regular exercise is necessary to decrease cholesterol levels in the blood of individuals of average weight.

105. Which of the following statements best completes the passage below?

People purchase status when they purchase a premium product. They want to be associated with something special which is not used by the mass segment of the population. Mass- marketing techniques and price reduction strategies should not be effective to promote sales of such products because . . . . . .

a. Continuity of sales depend directly on the maintenance of an aura of exclusivity.

b. Affluent purchasers currently represent a shrinking portion of the population of all purchasers

c. Expansion of premium market to include a broader spectrum of consumers will increase profits.

d. Purchasers of premium products are concerned with the quality as well as with the price of the products.

**Question Number 106 & 107 based on the following passage:**

If there is a war in the gulf it will disrupt the supply of oil in the world, thus increasing the international oil prices, domestic oil prices in open-market countries like India will rise as well, whether such countries import all or none of their requirement of oil.

106. If the above argument about increase in international oil prices due to the disruption of oil-supply is true, which of the following policies in an open-market nation would adopt to reduce the long-term economic impact on that nation of unexpected increase in oil prices?

a. Increase the number of oil tankers in its fleets.

b. Suspending diplomatic relations with major oil-producing nations

c. Decreasing oil consumption through conservation

d. Maintain the quantity of oil import at constant yearly levels.

107. Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the above argument?

a. Open-market countries that export little or none of their oil can maintain stable domestic oil prices even when international oil prices rise sharply.

b. The oil market in an open market country is actually part of the international oil market.

c. Open-market countries that export little or none of their oil can maintain stable domestic oil prices, even when international oil prices rise sharply.

d. If international oil prices rise, domestic distributors of oil in open market countries will being to import more than they export.

108. Red blood cells which are affected by the microbes causing the malaria fever are eliminated from a person’s blood stream after 120 days. The microbes cannot affect a new generation red blood cells. So any fever that develops in a person more than 120 days after that person has moved to malaria-free region is not due to the malarial parasite.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the above conclusion?

a. In an region infected with anopheles mosquitoes, there are individuals who appear to be immune to malaria.

b. Many symptoms of malaria, which can be suppressed with antimalarial meldicines, can reappear within 120 days after the medicine is discontinued.

c. The fever caused by the malarial microbes may resemble the fever caused by the viruses.

d. Sometimes malaria causing microbes infect the spleen cells, which is very difficult to eliminate from a person’s body than are red blood cells.

109. Advertising in media is becoming less effective. The proportions of brand names promoted on TV that viewers can recall is decreasing slowly.

TV viewers recall commercials aired first or last in a cluster of consecutive commercial better than those who are aired in the middle.

Argument in second para would be most likely to explain the argument of first para. If which of the following arguments are also true?

a. The average TV viewer currently recalls fewer than half the brand names promoted in commercials.

b. The average number of TV commerlcials in a cluster of consecutive commercials is increasing

c. The average number of hours per day that people spend watching TV is decreasing

d. The total time allotted to the average cluster of consecutive TV commercials is decreasing.

110. In rural India number of people having acute intestinal disease has dropped significantly this year, as compared to the last year. Health officials attribute this decrease entirely to improved sanitary conditions at water-treatment plants, which made for cleaner drinking water this year and thus reduced the incidence of disease.

Which of the following, if true, would seriously weaken the health officials explanation for the lower incidence of disease?

a. Because of a new diagnostic technique, many people who were incorrectly treated are now correctly diagnosed as suffering from intestinal ulcers.

b. Many new water treatment plants have been built int eh last five years in rural India.

c. The water in the rural India was brought up to the sanitary standards in last five years.

d. Because of medical advances is current years far fewer people who contract the disease will develop severe cases of the disease.

111. Those who favor privatizing governmental organizations, suggest that conservation objectives would in general be better served if private environmental groups are put in charge of operating and financing national parks, which are now run by the government.

Which of the following statements argues strongly against the above suggestion?

a. These might be competition among private environmental groups for control of certain parks

b. Some endangered species might die out despite the best efforts of the private environmental groups

c. Private environmental groups might not always agree on the best ways to achieve conservation objectives.

d. Those seeking to abolish all restrictions on exploiting natural resources might join the private environmental groups as members and eventually take over their leadership.

112. Rural households have more purchasing power than urban households at the same income group, since some of the income urban households use for food and shelter can be used by the rural households for other purposes.

Which of the following statements is best supported by the above passage?

a. The median of income of urban households is generally higher than that of rural households.

b. The average rural households includes more people than does the average urban household

c. Rural households have lower food and housing costs than the urban households.

d. Both types of households spend more on housing than on other purchases combined.

113.
The great scientists of the 18^{th} Centaury,
Lavoisier, became famous than most of his contemporaries because not only
did he discover and isolate many of the chemical elements but he also gave
them names which both described the element in terms of its power and
function and which came to be accepted by other scientists in subsequent
generations. Which of the following can be inferred from above passage?

a. Some of the elements that Lavoisier discovered were given names that described their properties.

b. Lavoisier became famous only because the names that he gave the chemicals become accepted.

c.
All elements in the 18^{th} century were
named after Lavoisier

d.
Lavoisier strived for fame and influence in the 18^{th}
Century.

114. (i) All members of Group D include all members of Group B.

(ii) All members of Group C include all members of Group A

(iii) All members of Group D include all members of Group A

(iv) All members of Group B include all members of Group A.

(v) All members of Group C include all members of Group D.

Which of the following statements must be true in order to establish that Group C includes all the Group A, B and D?

a. Statement 1 is a vital piece of information

b. Statement 2 is a vital piece of information

c. Statement 3 is a vital piece of information

d. Statement is a vital piece of information

115. Contrary to the views of those who oppose recent introduction of law prohibiting smoking cigarettes in public places, the prohibition is quite justified and long overdue. Those who object would feel better that there is much legislation in this country, for example, the law against jaywalking – which is an infringement of civil liberties.

Which of the following statements about the intention of author is correct?

a. He attacks his opponents because they are self-interested smokers.

b. He points out that his antagonists’ arguments lead to a choice between equally undesirable alternatives.

c. He is pointing out that the opponents’ rationalization of the argument leads to an unreasonable conclusion

d. He is attempting to draw an analogy between restricting a person’s freedom to cross busy road anywhere one pleases and banning smoking in public places.

116. The Greenhouse effect is causing a general rise in temperature level throughout the world. Scientists are predicting that there will be more droughts and more floods due to the rise of common problem. However, there will be benefits to some parts of the world, where agricultural production will increase.

Based on the above passage, which of the following assumptions is correct in planning for future food production?

a. The climate of northern parts of the world will be unaffected.

b. The Greenhouse Effect will have a positive effect on certain areas of the world only.

c. Pasture lands will increase in area

d. Divert lands may be flooded.

117. The stress related diseases in professionals are increasing at an alarming rate. Between 1995 and 1998 in increase in lost working days or men was up by 15% for cardiac disease, 12% for cerebrovascular disease, 10% for hypertensive disease. For women professionals comparative figures are 20% for cardiac disease, 30% for cerebrovascular disease, 4% for hypertensive disease and 2% for ulcers.

Which of the following conclusions cannot be derived from the above passage?

a. Crisis in the industry have a direct effect on the health of professionals

b. Male staff seem to be more sensitive to psychological stress then female staff.

c. More women are suffering from cerebrovascular diseases related to stress than men.

d. The rate at which the incidence of cardiac diseases for men is increasing is less than the rate for women.

118. New problems require new solutions. And new problems arise with new population and new technologies. The solutions as well as new social framework. Yet institutions and political and economic arrangements grow slowly and die slowly. Because old institutions die slowly, new institutions should be given chance to succeed.

The writer of the above made which of the following assumptions?

a. New institutions are created in order to solve existing problems.

b. Socio-technological change requires new forms of institutional arrangements

c. As old institutions are phased out, new ones take their place.

d. New institutions are needed because old institutions are inefficient.

119. In 1980, average number of child visited the dentist once a year, by 1990, the number of visits increased to two. Today, the average child visits the dentists more than two times a year. Each of the following if true, could explain the trend except:

a. Dental care has become less painful

b. Parents are more aware of the importance of dental care

c. Dentist fees have declined over the period

d. Better home care of teeth has reduced the teeth problems

120. The most commonly cited explanation for nationalization of foreign companies is a change in government policies. Nationalization tends to cover a wide range of industries and is not selective by country of ownership.

The above statement assumes that:

a. The process of nationalization is not limited to any particular industry or country.

b. Nationalization will not occur in countries with democratic governments.

c. Nationalization of business is so wide-spread as to cause concern

d. Sharing ownership with local nationals will forestall takeovers by foreign governments.

**Vocabulary and Writing Skills**

Select the pair that best express a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.

121. BREAD : BAKE

a. Wine : pour

b. Food : sell

c. Steak : broil

d. Sugar : spill

122. REMISS : DUTY

a. Congent : argument

b. Careful : position

c. Easy : hard

d. Negligent : requirement

123. FAME : HEROISM

a. Ignominy : disloyalty

b. Martyr : man

c. Death : victory

d. Derelict : fool

124. CHARGE : INSINUATE

a. Assert : convince

b. Say : deny

c. Affirm : hint

d. Confirm : reject

125. WAR : DESTRUCTION

a. Doctor : medicine

b. Shopkeeper : goods

c. Germ : disease

d. Man : woman

126. FANATICISM : INTOLERANCE

a. Bigotry : hatred

b. Good : bad

c. Sweetness : bitterness

d. Sugar : wheat

127. EMIGRATION : DEPARTURE

a. File : knife

b. Native : foreigner

c. Immigration : entrance

d. Nest : bird

128. FREEZING : COLD

a. Cold : freezing

b. Cold : hot

c. Boiling : lukewarm

d. Cloudy : sunny

129. HAUNTED : SPECTRE

a. Conference : meeting

b. Delusion : mirage

c. Plea : request

d. Gift : party

130. ADMIRATION : LOVE

a. Life : hope

b. Youth : fun

c. Happiness : sorrow

d. Joy : ecstasy

131. CASTINGATION : ADMONISHMENT

a. Humanity : vanity

b. Adulation : flattery

c. Emulation : rivalry

d. Irascibility : provocation

132. SOOTHE : UNNERVE

a. Delay : plan

b. Deaf : dump

c. Laugh : joke

d. Awareness : consciousness

133. PLASTIC : RIGID

a. Iron : hard

b. Level : plane

c. Alleviate : aggravate

d. Joke : worry

134. BREAD : STARCH

a. Food : eat

b. Energy : dissipate

c. Electricity : generate

d. Food : heat

135. MONEY : SQUANDER

a. Food : eat

b. Energy : dissipate

c. Electricity : generate

d. Food : heat

136. BONNET : HAT

a. Flower : redness

b. Fiction : reality

c. Myth : story

d. Pencil : paper

Choose the lettered word or phrase that is similar in meaning to the word in capital letters

137. UNDULATE

a. To smooth over

b. Swing

c. Move in waves

d. Revolve

138. ATTENUATE

a. To weaken

b. Peaceful

c. Sarcastic

d. Torpid

139. STANGNATION

a. Copious flow

b. Desiccation

c. Activity

d. Stasis

140. TOPICAL

a. Superficial

b. Concerning a locality’s physical features

c. Of contemporary interest

d. Limited

141. UNCEASING

a. Demanding

b. Sudden

c. Annoying

d. Incessant

142. quarantine

a. ISOLATION

b. ILNESS

c. TRAINING

d. ALLOWANCE

143. DULL

a. Dictatorial

b. Austere

c. Monotonous

d. Selfish

144. QUADRANGLE

a. Courtyard

b. Tribunal

c. Dance party

d. Excavation

**Directions:** Question No. 145 to 172 consist of a number of sentences,
in each of which some part or the whole is underlines. Each sentence is
followed by four alternative versions of the underlined portion. Select an
alternative you consider both most correct and most effective according to
the requirements of standard written English.

In considering the answer choices be attentive to matters of grammar, diction, and syntax, as well as clarity, precision, and fluency. Do not select an answer which alters the meaning of the original sentence.

145.
In all types of tissues in human beings, dioxin
induces the production of enzymes that are the organism’s __trying to
metabolize, or render harmless, the chemical that is irritating it.__

a. Attempt to try and metabolize, or render harmless, the chemical irritating it

b. Attempt to metabolize, or render harmless, the chemical irritant

c. Trying that it metabolize, or render harmless, such a chemical irritant

d. Trying to metabolize, or render harmless, the chemical that is irritating it.

146.
Due to the inadequate information about the use of
energy , people tend to overestimate the amount of energy used by __
equipment ,such as lights , that is visible and must be turned on and of and
underestimate it when __used by unobtrusive equipment ,such as water
heaters

a. Equipment such as lights, that is visible and must be turned, on and off and underestimate it when.

b. Visible equipment, such as lights that must be turned on and off and underestimate it when.

c. Equipment such as lights, that are visible and must be turned on and off and underestimate that.

d. Visible equipment, such as lights, that must be turned on and off and underestimate that.

147.
__Although Indian voters agree__ there is waste in
government and that the government as a whole spend beyond its means, it is
difficult to find broad support for a movement toward minimizing government
expenditure.

a. Despite the agreement among Indian voters to the fact.

b. However much Indian voters agree that.

c. There is agreement among Indian voters that.

d. However most Indian voters may agree

148.
__Formulas for cash flow and the ratio of debt to
equity do not apply to new small projects in the same way as they do to
established big projects , because they are growing and are seldom in
equilibrium __

a. Because they are growing and are seldom in equilibrium , formulas for cash flow and the ratio of debt to equity do not apply to new small projects in the same ways they do to establish big projects

b. Because they are growing and are seldom in equilibrium , new small projects are not subject to the same applicability of formulas for cash flow and the ratio of debt to equity as established big projects

c. New small projects are not subject to the applicability of formulas for cash flow and the ratio of debt to equity in the same way as established big projects, because they are growing and are seldom in equilibrium

d. Because new small projects are growing and seldom in equilibrium, formulas for cash flow and the ratio of debt to equity do not apply to them in the same way as to established big projects.

149.
It is the belief of paleontologists that fragments of
jawbone unearthed in Burma and estimated __as 40 to 44 million years old
provides evidence of what was__ crucial step along the evolutionary path
that led to human beings.

a. To be 40 to 44 million years old provide evidence of

b. At 40 to 44 million years old provide evidence of

c. As being 40 t 44 million years old provides evidence of

d. That it is 40 to 44 million years old provides evidence of what was

150.
Unlike a typical automobile icon, which requires a
twenty to twenty-five percent down payment. __The lease-loan buyers are not
required to make__ an initial down payment on the new vehicle.

a. The lease-loan buyer are not required to make

b. With lese-loan buying there is no requirement of

c. A lease-loan does not require the buyer to make

d. For the lese loan buyer there is no requirement of

151.
__The protein in rice is higher in quality than that
in __wheat, in addition to having more protein than wheat and with more of
the essential amino acids required in the human diet.

a.
__The protein in rice is higher in quality than it
is in__

b.
__Rice has protein of higher quality than that in__

c.
__Rice has a protein higher in quantity than__

d.
__Rice protein is higher in quality than it is in__

152.
A boom in the construction of commercial real estates
is due to the series of tax incentives offered in such projects; __such has
the abundance of capital been for commercial real estate that__ investors
regularly scour the areas in which to build.

a. Capital has been so abundant for commericial real estate, so that

b. So abundant has capital been for commercial real estate that

c. The abundance of capital for commercial real estate has been such.

d. Such has been an abundance of capital for commercial real estate.

153.
The various papers of Thomas Alva Edison reveal that
his inventions typically __sprang to life not in a flash of inspiration but
evolved slowly__ from previous works.

a. Did not spring to life in a flash of inspiration but had slowly evolved

b. Did not spring to life in a flash of inspiration but they are slowly evolved.

c. Sprang to life not in a flash of inspiration but evolved slowly.

154.
The primary decision for most tenants living in a
apartment undergoing __being converted to cooperative ownership is if to
sign__ a no-buy pledge with other tenants.

a. Being converted to cooperative ownership is whether they should be signing

b. Conversion to cooperative ownership is whether to sign

c. Being converted to cooperative ownership is whether or not they sign

d. Conversion to cooperative ownership is if to sign.

155.
Of all the natural calamities that threaten Indian
agriculture, the possibility of an adverse change in climate__ is probably
more difficult to analyze.__

a. Is, it may be, the analysis that is most difficult.

b. Is probably the most difficult to analyze.

c. Is may be the more difficult for analysis.

d. Is, may be the most difficult for analysis.

156.
The rise in CMIE’s index of leading economic
indicators __suggest that the economy should continue its expansion in the
coming months, but that__ the mixed performance of the index’s individual
components indicates that economic growth will proceed at a more moderate
pace than in the second quarter of the current year.

a. Suggests that the economy will continue to expand in the coming months, but

b. Suggests that the economy will continue its expanding in the coming months, but that

c. Suggests that the economy is to continue expansion in the coming months, but

d. Suggests that the economy is continuing to expand into the coming months, but that

157.
The end of nineteenth century saw the emergence of
prize-stock breeding, with individual horses receiving awards, fething
unprecedented prices, and __it excited__ enormous interest wherever those
horses were put on show

a. Would excite

b. It had excited

c. Excited

d. Exciting.

158.
__Developing the compact disc has been none the less
remarkable than__ has been the use of new technology to revitalize, in
better sound than was ever before possible.

a. No less remarkable than the development of the compact disc

b. The thing that was as remarkable as the development of the compact disc

c. Development of the CD has been no les remarkable as

159.
__Unlike computer skills or other technical skills,
analytical skills bring out a declination in many people to recognize that
they are weak to a degree.__

a. Many people have a disinclination to recognize the weakness of their analytical skills while willing to admit their lack of computer skills or other technical skills.

b. Many people willing to admit that they lack computer skills or other technical skill, are disinclined to recognize that their analytical skills are weak

c. Unlike computer skills or other technical skills, which they admit they lack, many people are disinclined to recognize that their analytical skills are weak.

160. Last year the earthquake destroyed or heavily damaged more buildings that have been constructed in violation of the city’s code.

a. Some buildings that were destroyed and heavily damaged in the earthquake last year were

b. Some buildings that were destroyed or heavily damaged in the earthquake last year had been

c. Last year some of the buildings that were destroyed or heavily damaged in the earthquake had been

d. Some buildings that were destroyed and heavily damaged in the earthquake last year were

161. A study done by the Indian Institute of Science has concluded that much of the currently uncontrolled dioxins that urban Indian are exposed comes

a. Most of the currently uncontrolled dioxin to which urban Indian are exposed comes

b. Many of the currently uncontrolled dioxins to which urban Indians are exposed come

c. Many of the currently uncontrolled dioxins to which urban Indians are exposed come.

d. Many of the dioxin that are currently uncontrolled and urban Indians are exposed to come

162.
Most of the academicians believe that business ethics
should be integrated into every business course, others say that students
will take ethics seriously __only if it would be thought as a separately
required course.__

a. Only if it is taught as a separate, required course

b. If it would only be taught as a required course, separately

c. If it was taught only as a separate and required course

d. If it is taught only a course required separately.

163.
Scientists have observed large concentrations of
heavy-metal deposits in the upper level of __Arabian sea sediments, where
the growth of Industrial activity is consistent with these finds.__

a. Arabian Sea sediments, findings consistent with its growth of industrial activity

b. Sediments from the Arabian Sea, consistent with the growth of industrial activity there

c. Arabian Sea sediments, which are consistent with the growth of industrial activity there

d. Sediments from the Arabian Sea, findings consistent with the growth of industrial activity there

164.
In ancient India, animal hide shields with wooden
frames were essential items of military requirement, __as a protection of__
warriors against enemy arrows and spears.

a. A method to protect

b. Protecting

c. To protect

d. As a method to protect

165.
Under a provision of Legislative Law that __was
never applied, ruling party has been required to call a convention for
considering possible amendments to the document when formally asked to do it__
by the legislatures.

a. Was never applied, there has been a requirement that ruling party call a convention for consideration of possible amendments to the document when formally asked to do it.

b. Has never been applied, whereby the ruling party is required to call a convention to consider possible amendments to the document when formally asked to do so.

c. Has never been applied, whereby ruling party is required to call a convention to consider possible amendments to the document when formally asked to do so

d. Was never applied, ruling party has been required to call a convention for considering possible amendments to the document when formally asked to do it.

166.
Many Englishmen are of the view that __it was the
antipodes that was Australia, __the opposite pole of civilization, an
obsecure and unimaginable place that was considered as the end of the world.

a. Before there was Australia, it was the antipodes

b. Australia was what had been known as the antipodes

c. Australia was what was the antipodes

d. Before Australia was Australia, it was the antipodes

167.
__It was decided by the company management to give
the employees a raise __for the superb performance of its earnings in the
first half of the current fiscal year__.__

a. The company management decided to give the employees a raise

b. A raise was given to the employees by the company management.

c. The decision of the company management was to give the employees a raise

d. The employees were given a raise by company management.

168.
A study done by the Ministry of Agriculture revealed
that if calves exercise and __associated with other calves, they require
less medication and gain weight quicker than__ those raised in
confinement.

a. Associate with other calves, they have required less medication and will gain weight, more quickly than do

b. Associate with other calves, they require less medication and will gain weight quicker than do

c. Associate with other calves, they require less medication and gain weight more quickly than

d. Associated with other calves, they will require less medication and gain weight quicker than do

169.
The cameras of the Voyager spacecraft detected six
small previously unnoticed moons circling Uranus, __which doubles to twelve
the number of satellites now known that orbit__ the distant planner

a. Doubling to twelve the number of satellites now known to orbit

b. Which doubles to twelve the number of satellites now known as orbiting

c. Which doubles to twelve the number of satellites now known that orbit

d. Doubling to twelve the number of satellites now known as orbiting.

170. There is no consensus about the role played by acid rain in the damage to or the slowness of the growth of forests in the western India.

a. Damaged or slow growth of

b. Damaging or slowing the growth of

c. Slowing the growth or damaging

d. The damage or the slowing of the growth of

171. A recent study has found that in the last few years, many doctors had elected early retirement instead of facing the threats of lawsuits and the rising costs of insurance malpractices.

a. Had selected early retirement rather than face

b. Have elected to retire early rather than facing

c. Have elected early instead of facing

d. Have elected to retire early rather than face

172. According to a recent census, owning and living in an independent housel standing on its own land is still a goal of a majority of adults, as that for earlier generations.

a. Like that of earlier generations

b. Just as earlier generations did

c. As it was of earlier generations

d. As have earlier generations.

**Reading Comprehension**

**Read the following passage and answer the given questions.**

The economic condition of the low income regions of the world is one of the great problems of our time. Their progress is important to the high-income countries, not only for humanitarian and political reasons but also because rapid economic growth in the low income countries could make a substantial contribution to the expansion and prosperity of the world economy as a whole.

The governments of most high-income countries have in recent years undertaken important aid programs, both bilaterally and multilaterally, and have thus demonstrated their interest in the development of low-income countries. They have also worked within the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) for greater freedom of trade and, recognizing the special problems of low-income countries are to enjoy a satisfactory rate of growth.

This statement is therefore concerned with the policies of high – income countries toward their trade with low-income countries. Our recommendations are based on the conviction that a better distribution of world resources and a more rational utilization of labor are in the general interest. A liberal policy on the part of high-income countries with respect to their trade with low-income countries but, when transitional adjustments have taken place, beneficial to the high-income countries as well.

It is necessary to recognize however, that in furthering the development of low-income countries, the high-income countries can play only a supporting role. If development is to be successful, the main effort must necessarily be made by the people of the low-income countries. The high-income countries are, moreover, likely to provide aid and facilitate trade more readily and extensively where the low income countries are seen to be making sound and determined efforts to help themselves, and thus to be making effective use of their aid and trade opportunities.

It is, then necessary that the low-income countries take full account of the lessons that have been learned from the experience of recent years, if they wish to achieve successful development and benefit from support from high-income countries. Among the most important of these lessons are the following:

Severe damage has been done by inflation. A sound financial framework evokes higher domestic savings and investment as well as more aid and investment from abroad. Budgetary and monetary discipline and a more efficient financial and fiscal system help greatly to mobilize funds for investment and thereby decisively influence the rate of growth. Foreign aid should also be efficiently applied to this end.

The energies of the people of low-income countries are more likely to be harnessed to the task of economic development where the policies of their governments aim to offer economic opportunity for all and to reduce excessive social inequalities.

Development plans have tended to concentrate on industrial investment. The growth of industry depends, however, on concomitant development in agriculture. A steady rise in productivity on the farms, where in almost all low-income countries a majority of the labor force works, is an essential conditions of rapid over-all growth. Satisfactory development of agriculture is also necessary to provide an adequate market for an expanding industrial sector and to feed the growing urban population without burdening the balance of payments with heavy food imports. Diminishing surpluses in the high-income countries underline the need for a faster growth of agricultural productivity in low-income countries. Success in this should, moreover, lead to greater trade in agricultural productivity in low-income countries. Success in this should, moreover, lead to greater trade in agricultural products to the high-income countries.

There can be no doubt about the urgency of the world food problem. Adequate nourishment and a balanced diet are not only necessary for working adults but are crucial for the mental and physical development of growing children. Yet, in a number of low-income countries where the diet is already insufficient the production of food has fallen behind the increase in population. A continuation of this trend must lead to endemic famine. The situation demands strenuous efforts famine. The situation demands strenuous efforts in the low-income countries to improve the production, preservation, and distribution of food so that these countries are better able to feed themselves.

173. The issue with which the passage is concerned with

a. General economic problems of under-developed countries

b. Trade policies of high-income countries towards under-developed countries

c. Fiscal and monetary problems of under-developed countries

d. Foreign trade problems of under-developed countries.

174. According to the passage governments of developed countries have

a. Provided training programs for under-developed country entrepreneurs

b. Not worked for freer trade with under-developed countries

c. Injected massive doses of capital into low-income countries

d. Undertaken important aid programs for under-developed countries

175. If under-developed countries expect aid from developed countries, they must do all of the following except

a. De-emphasize agricultural development in favor of industrial growth

b. Reduce the level of inflation

c. Control their spending

d. Learn from the experience of developed countries

176. According to the passage the rate of economic growth will be influenced by

a. Trade surplus

b. Less reliance on foreign aid

c. An efficient financial and fiscal system

d. Democratic government

177. Industrial growth depends on the growth of

a. Balance of payments

b. Urban population

c. Monetary system

d. Agricultural system

178. The passage states that the participation of developed countries in the development of under-developed countries should be limited to

a. Regulations stipulated by GATT

b. A supporting role

c. What under-developed countries can absorb

d. Monetary aid only

179. To enhance the economic development efforts with the help of a country’s work force, under-developed countries should

a. Reduce excessive social inequalities

b. Budget the capital wisely

c. Establish agricultural communes

d. Concentrate on commercial development

180. People will be motivated to work if they are offered

a. Better working condition

b. Quality jobs

c. Social equality

d. More money.

d.

d.

d.

**Key to
Practice Test – 1**

1. d |
2. c |
3. d |
4. b |
5. c |
6. c |
7. b |
8. a |
9. d |
10. b |

11. b |
12. c |
13. a |
14. a |
15. c |
16. c |
17. d |
18. b |
19. b |
20. a |

21. b |
22. d |
23. b |
24. d |
25. b |
26. d |
27. a |
28. c |
29. c |
30. b |

31. b |
32. b |
33. d |
34. c |
35. b |
36. c |
37. c |
38. c |
39. d |
40. c |

41. b |
42. b |
43. b |
44. d |
45. c |
46. d |
47. d |
48. b |
49. d |
50. d |

51. b |
52. c |
53. b |
54. c |
55. d |
56. b |
57. c |
58. a |
59. b |
60. d |

61. d |
62. b |
63. a |
64. c |
65. c |
66. d |
67. c |
68. d |
69. a |
70. b |

71. d |
72. b |
73. a |
74. c |
75. b |
76. d |
77. c |
78. b |
79. c |
80. b |

81. c |
82. d |
83. a |
84. c |
85. a |
86. b |
87. d |
88. a |
89. c |
90. d |

91. b |
92. c |
93. b |
94. b |
95. d |
96. d |
97. a |
98. c |
99. a |
100. a |

101. c |
102. d |
103. b |
104. c |
105. a |
106. c |
107. b |
108. d |
109. b |
110. a |

111. d |
112. c |
113. a |
114. a |
115. d |
116. b |
117. c |
118. b |
119. d |
120. a |

121. c |
122. d |
123. a |
124. c |
125. c |
126. a |
127. c |
128. c |
129. b |
130. d |

131. b |
132. a |
133. c |
134. c |
135. b |
136. c |
137. c |
138. a |
139. d |
140. c |

141. d |
142. a |
143. c |
144. a |
145. b |
146. d |
147. b |
148. d |
149. a |
150. c |

151. b |
152. b |
153. d |
154. b |
155. b |
156. a |
157. d |
158. a |
159. b |
160. b |

161. c |
162. a |
163. d |
164. b |
165. b |
166. d |
167. a |
168. c |
169. d |
170. b |

171. d |
172. c |
173. b |
174. d |
175. a |
176. c |
177. d |
178. b |
179. a |
180. c |

** **

**
Practice Test – 2**

**
Quantitative Ability**

1. Three numbers are in the ratio 3:4:5 and their average is 36. The largest number is

a. 27

b. 36

c. 40

d. 45

2. What number must be added to the numerator and denominator of 7/9 to give 14/16?

a. 2

b. 5

c. 7

d. 8

3. A number when divided by 4 is diminished by 54. The number is

a. 27

b. 45

c. 72

d. 90

4. If a number is subtracted from the square of its one fourth, the result is 5. The square of the number is

a. 576

b. 400

c. 256

d. 160

5. The sum of three consecutive odd number is 219. The middle one is

a. 79

b. 77

c. 75

d. 73

6. A pipe can fill a tank in 3 hours. Due to a leak in the bottom it is filled in 4 hours. If the tank is full, the leak will take ________ to empty tank.

a. 10 hours

b. 12 hours

c. 13 hours

d. 15 hours

7. A man wants to purchase Rs.9,000 of 8% stock at Rs.105. The price he will have to pay for it, is

a. Rs.8,571

b. Rs.9,000

c. Rs.9,450

d. Rs.9,500

8. The ratio of the areas of two squares, one having double its diagonal than the other is

a. 2:1

b. 4:2

c. 4:1

d. Data inadequate

9. If 200 men can do a piece of work in 24 days, how many men would do ¼ of the work in 10 days?

a. 240

b. 180

c. 120

d. 100

10. 20 men can reap a field in 24 days. In how many days will 30 men reap the field?

a. 20 days

b. 16 days

c. 12 days

d. 10 days

11. If the diagonal of a square is 50% of other square then the ratio of the area of the squares is

a. 1:2

b. 1:4

c. 1:6

d. 1:8

12. Area of a square with side ‘a’ is equal to the area of a triangle with base ‘a’. The height of the triangle is

a. 4a

b. 2a

c. a

d. a/2

13. The income derived from a 8% stock at Rs.98 is

a. Rs.7.48

b. Rs.7.84

c. Rs.8.00

d. Rs.8.48

14. A 6% stock yields 9%. The market value of the stock is

a. Rs.150.00

b. Rs.100.00

c. Rs.80.00

d. Rs.66.67

15. A invested some money in7% stock at rs.98. Now, B wants to invest in an inequality good 8% stock. B must purchase a stock worth of

a. Rs.85.75

b. Rs.87.50

c. Rs.112.00

d. Rs.114.29

16. A man invested Rs.784 in a stock at Rs.98 to obtain an income of Rs.36. The dividend from the stock is

a. 2%

b. 3.6%

c. 4%

d. 4.5%

17. A man invests in a 7% stock at Rs.98. If he wants to earn Rs.100, the amount of investment needed is

a. Rs.2,000

b. Rs.1.500

c. Rs.1,400

d. Rs.1,200

18. A man purchased 100 shares of Rs.10 at 6% discount, the rate of dividend being 11%. The current yield is

a. 10%

b. 11.7%

c. 12%

d. 12.5%

19. Which of the following is the next number in the series of 154, 187, 253, 352, 484 ….?

a. 517

b. 50

c. 616

d. 649

20. The wrong number in the series of 1,18,27,37 51 and 66 is

a. 18

b. 37

c. 51

d. 66

21. The wrong umber in the series of 1,1,4,36, 580 and 14400 is

a. 1

b. 4

c. 580

d. 14400

22. The one side of a rectangular park is 12 metres and its diagonal is 15 metres. The area of the park is

a. 81 sq. metres

b. 90 sq. metres

c. 180 sq. metres

d. 108 sq. metres

23. The ratio between length and breadth of a rectangular field is 7:3. If the length is 28 metres more than the breadth, the perimeter of the rectangular field is

a. 70 metres

b. 140 metres

c. 210 metres

d. 280 metres

24. If , one side of rectangle is double than that of its other side and its diagonal is 7√5 metres, the perimeter of the rectangle is

a. 48 metres

b. 44 metres

c. 42 metres

d. 40 metres

25. The threee numbers are in the ratio of 3:5:7 and the sum of their squares is 1328. The middle number is

a. 28

b. 24

c. 20

d. 12

26. The ratio between two numbers is 9:7 and their Lowest Common Multiple (LCM) is 756. The second number is

a. 108

b. 84

c. 63

d. 12

27. The price of an article is divided between material, labour, overhead and profit in the ratio of 7:5:2:1. If the materialas cost is Rs.70, the cost of article is

a. Rs.140

b. Rs.150

c. Rs.160

d. Rs.170

28. In a class, the number of boys is more than the number of girls by 10% of the total strength. The ratio of boys and girls is

a. 11:0:9

b. 9:11

c. 1:1:9

d. 11:9

29. A train traveling with a constant speed crosses a 112 metre long platform in 20 seconds and another 162 metre in 25 seconds. The length of the train is

a. 50 metre

b. 88 metre

c. 100 metre

d. 110 metre

30. The ratio between the rates of speed of A and B is 3:2 and between B & C is 2:1. The distance covered by C in 54 minutes will be covered by A in

a. 90 minutes

b. 10 minutes

c. 18 minutes

d. 20 minutes

31. Amal and Bimal can do a work in 8 days, Bimal and Kamal in 12 days and Kamal and Amal in 24. Bimal alone can do the work in

a. 8 days

b. 10 days

c. 12 days

d. 15 days

32. A can do a piece of work in 15 days which B can do in 10 days. B worked at it for 8 days. A can finish the remaining work in

a. 2 days

b. 3 days

c. 5 days

d. 10 days

33. The ratio of rates of working of A and B is 5:3. The number of days taken by them to finish the work are in the ratio of

a. 5:3

b. 3:5

c. 2:1

d. 1:2

34. If a piece of work can be done by 1 man or 2 women or 3 boys in 3 days, then the same piece of work will be done by 1 woman and I boy in

a. 25 days

b. 24 days

c. 20 days

d. 18 days

35. A can do a piece of work in 18 days while B can do it in 12 days. With the help of C, they finish the work in 4 days, C alone can do the work in

a. 9 days

b. 10 days

c. 1 days

d. 14 days

36. A and B can do a piece of work in 18 days; B and C in 24 days; A and C in 36 days. They can finish that work together in

a. 8 days

b. 12 days

c. 16 days

d. 18 days

37. The wages of A for 20 days work is equal to wages of B for 30 days work. The money is sufficient to cover either A or B. If money is to pay the wages for both, how many days it will cover for both A and B?

a. 10 days

b. 12 days

c. 20 days

d. 25 days

38. A certain number of men complete a job in 40 days. If 5 men are increased, the work could be finished in 10 days less. The total number of men before increase is

a. 20

b. 18

c. 15

d. 10

39. The ratio of money with A and B is 9:7 and that with B and C is 9:7. If A has Rs.810, C has

a. Rs.630

b. Rs.490

c. Rs.350

d. Rs.280

40. Profit after selling an article for Rs.479 is same as loss after selling it for Rs.399. The cost of the article is

a. Rs.440

b. Rs.493

c. Rs.469

d. Rs.439

41. The length of a rectangle is increased by 25%. By what percent would the width have to be decreased to maintain the same area?

a. 25%

b. 20%

c. 12.5%

d. 10%

42. If the ratio of the areas of two squares is 16:9 the ratio of their perimeters is

a. 16:9

b. 12:9

c. 4:3

d. 3:4

43. If the ratio of the volumes of 2 cubes is 125:27, the ratio of their edges is

a. 11.18:5.2

b. 11.18:3

c. 3.0:5.0

d. 5.0:3.0

44. A plastic rope of 264 cm length has been p0ut in the form of a circle. The area of the circle so formed is:

a.
5544 cm^{2}

b. 5544 cm

c. 4455 cm

d.
5454cm^{2}

45. A and B complete a job in 20 days, while A , B and C can finish it in 15 days. C alone will finish the job in

a. 12 days

b. 40 days

c. 45 days

d. 60 days

46. Two numbers are respectively 36% and 70% more than a third number. The percentage of first to the second is

a. 36%

b. 70%

c. 80%

d. 83%

47. The average of first 7 multiples of 7 is

a. 28

b. 35

c. 42

d. 49

48. The smallest number which when divided by 12, 16 and 20 leaves 9, 13 and 17 as remainder is

a. 480

b. 350

c. 240

d. 237

49. What number must be added to the numbers 5,9 and 14 so that they are in a continued proportion?

a. 5

b. 7

c. 11

d. 13

50. A man deposits Rs,5,000 partly at 20% and partly at 10% interest for one year in a bank. If he gets an interest of Rs.820 at the end of one year, the amount deposited at 20% is

a. Rs.3,000

b. Rs.3,200

c. Rs.3,500

d. Rs.4,000

51.
The difference of 2 numbers is 6 and 1/9^{th}
of their sum is 12. The small number is

a. 31

b. 42

c. 49

d. 51

52. If an article is sold at a discount of 12% on the list price which is loaded with a profit of 20% in sale price , then the gain percent of the seller is

a. 20%

b. 15%

c. 12.5%

d. 10%

53.
A train runs a certain journey in 11 hours. It covers
1/3^{rd} of the distance at 30 kmph and rest at 50 kmph. The length
of the distance is

a. 550 km

b. 450 km

c. 330 km

d. 220 km

54. A train 200 metres long passes an electric pole in 20 seconds. The speed of the rain is

a. 20 km/hour

b. 25 km/hour

c. 30 km/hour

d. 36 km/hour

55. A train 100 100 metres long passes a platform of 200 metres length in 20 seconds. The speed of the train is

a. 45km/hour

b. 50km/hour

c. 54km/hour

d. 55km/hour

56. A train is running at 36 km/hour, took 15 seconds in passing an electric pole. The length of the train is

a. 100 metres

b. 150 metres

c. 200 metres

d. 250 metres

57. A train 200 metres long, running 30 km/hour takes 30 seconds to pass a bridge. The length of the bridge is

a. 50 metres

b. 100 metres

c. 150 metres

d. 200 metres

58. A train 100 metres long crosses a man walking at the speed of 10 km/hour in the opposite direction in 4 seconds. The speed of the train in km/hour is

a. 100 km/hour

b. 90 km/hour

c. 80 km/hour

d. 70 km/hour

59. A travels a certain distance at 5 km/hour and reaches 20 minutes late. If he travels at 6 km/hour he reaches 20 minutes earlier. The distance he has to travel is

a. 10 km

b. 12 km

c. 15 km

d. 20 km

60. The least number by which 180 be multiplied to make the result a perfect square is

a. 5

b. 4

c. 3

d. 2

61. The largest number of 3 digits, which is a perfect square is

a. 999

b. 986

c. 975

d. 961

62. The least number to be substracted from 16,000 to make it a perfect square, is

a. 0

b. 40

c. 124

d. 126

63. The least number by which 6912 be multiplied to make the result a perfect cube, is

a. 2

b. 3

c. 5

d. 6

64. 40% of x + x% of 40 is equal to

a. 0.04x

b. 0.08x

c. 0.4x

d. 0.8x

65. If m is less than n, which of the following numbers is greater than m and less than n?

a. mn

b. mn / 2

c. m + n / 2

d.
n^{2} – m^{2}

66. Which of the following numbers is the largest?

a.
(2 + 2 + 2^{2} + 2)^{2}

b.
[2 + (2 +2)^{2}]^{2}

c.
2 x 2 x 2^{2} x 2^{3}

d.
[(2 + 2) x 2^{2}]^{2}

67. The value of

a. 1

b. x

c.
x^{2}

d. 1/x

68. Mr X can type a manuscript in 8 hours. Mr. Y can type the same manuscript in 4 hours. If they type this manuscript together, it can be completed in

a. 4 hours

b. 3 hours 30 minutes

c. 2 hours 40 minutes

d. 2 hours

69. If the radius of a circle is increased by 5%, then the area of the circle is increased by

a. 25%

b. 15%

c. 10.25%

d. 10%

70. The price of the two products A and B are same. If the price of product A rises by 6% and price of product B goes by by 4%, by what percent will the cost of 2 units of product A and 3 units of product B rise?

a. 24%

b. 10%

c. 5%

d. 4.8%

71. The average of two numbers is AB. If one number is equal to A, the other number is

a. B

b. 2B

c. AB-A

d. 2AB-A

72. A man was asked to multiply a given number by 2/3. Instead, he multiplied the given number by 3/2 and got the result 50 more than what he should have got if he had multiplied the number by 2/3. The given number was

a. 50

b. 60

c. 75

d. 80

73. If a given number is multiplied by 2/5 instead of dividing that number, the resultant balance will be reduced by 189. The given number is

a. 200

b. 150

c. 100

d. 90

74. The smallest fraction which should be subtracted from the sum of 11/3, 17/4, 19/5 and 21/5 to make the result a whole number is

a. 11/12

b. 12/11

c. 55/12

d. 60/11

75. Refer to the adjacent figure, ABCD is a square. AF = 3 cm., CE = 7 cm., shaded area = 48 sq.cm. Area of KHBF = ______ sq.cm

a. 58

b. 56

c. 52

d. 50

76. A car cost Mr. A Rs. P in 1995. Three years later he sold the car for 20% more than he paid for it. He has to pay a tax of 25% of the gain. How much tax must Mr. A Pay?

a. P/25

b. P/20

c. P/40

d. P/50

77. A company reports that 1980 electronic parts are found defective. If this represents 8 ¼% of total production, how many of these parts were free from defective?

a. 24,200

b. 23,760

c. 22,200

d. 22,020

78. When 18 litres of diesel are put into a car, the indicator goes from 1/6 to 5/6. The total capacity of diesel tank in litre is

a. 20 litres

b. 25 litres

c. 27 litres

d. 30 litres

79. A pen is manufactured to sell for Rs.60, which yields a profit of 25% on cost. If the profit is to be reduced to 20% on cost, the new retail price will be

a. Rs.50.00

b. Rs.54.00

c. Rs.55.00

d. Rs.57.60

80. A pipe can fill a tank in X hours. What part of the tank is filled in Y hours?

a. XY

b. Y/X

c. X/Y

d. (X+Y)

81. One third of a number is 20 more than one fifth of that number. The number is

a. 100

b. 120

c. 150

d. 180

82. A candidate needs 45% marks to pass. If he gets 76 marks and fails by 14 marks, then the maximum mark is

a. 100

b. 200

c. 250

d. 300

83. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 15. If the digits are reversed the number is increased by 27. The number is

a. 96

b. 74

c. 69

d. 47

84. Two concentric circles have their radii 5 cm and 4 cm. The area of the space between the two circles

a. 550/7 sq.cm

b. 352/7 sq.cm

c. 198/7 sq.cm

d. 22/7 sq.cm

85. Corner AEF is cut from the rectangle as shown in the adjacent figure. The area of the remaining polygon EDCBF is

a. 80 sq.cm

b. 72 sq.cm

c. 68 sq.cm

d. 60 sq.cm

86. Two batches containing 100 and 160 tourists arrived to see Golconda Fort. Each of the two batches is divided into groups of equal size to be accompanied by a guide. What is the largest possible number in each group so that the batches are exactly divided?

a. 10

b. 16

c. 20

d. 32

87. If the perimeter of a dircle is equal to the perimeter of a square, then their areas are in the ratio of

a. 4:3

b. 7:11

c. 11:14

d. 14:11

88. Amal started a business investing Rs. 20,000. Three months later Bimal joined him investing Rs. 30,000. If they make a profit of Rs. 8,500 at the end of the year, what would be Bimal’s share

a. Rs.4,500

b. Rs.4,000

c. Rs.5,000

d. Rs.5,500

89. In a partnership business, A and B invest their capitals in the ratio 5:4. At the end of 8 months A withdraws his capital. If they get profits in the ratio of 5:8, then the number of months for which B invests his capital is

a. 14 months

b. 12 months

c. 10 months

d. 9 months

90. The least multiple of 7 which leaves a reminder of 4 when divided by 6,9,15 and 18 is

a. 67

b. 109

c. 130

d. 634

**
Data Adequacy**

**Directions:** Each of the following problems has a question and two
statements which are labeled (i) and (ii) . Use the data given in (i) and
(ii) together with other available information (such as the number of hours
in a day, the definition of clockwise, mathematical facts, etc.) to decide
whether the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Then mark the
answer as

a. If statement (i) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (ii) alone is not sufficient

b. If statement (ii) alone is sufficient, but statement (i) alone is not sufficient

c. If both the statements (i) and (ii) together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient

d. If either statement (i) alone or statement (ii) alone suffices

All number used in this section are real numbers. A figure given for a problem is intended to provide information consistent with that in the question, but not necessarily with the additional information contained in the statements.

91. At a birthday party, each of the guests was served either a Coke or a Pepsi. How many of the guests were served Pepsi?

i. At the birthday party, 55% of the guests were served Pepsi

ii. A total of 300 bottles of soft drink were served to all guests at the party.

92. By what percent has the price of a chicken burger increased?

i. The price of the chicken burger has increased by Rs.2.50

ii. The price of the chicken burger after the increase is Rs.25.

93. Is X greater than Y?

i. 2x > 2Y

ii. X + Z > Y + Z

94. If share broker received a commission of 6% of the selling price of 100 shares of a certain scrip, then what was the sales realization of 100 shares?

i. The sales realization minus the broker’s commission was Rs. 84600.

ii. The selling price was 250% of the original purchase price of Rs.36000

95. What is the value of |A|?

i. A = - |A|

ii.
A^{2} = 4

96. Refer to the following figure

What is the value of C?

i. A + B = 139

ii. B + C = 108

97.
If (A) ^{½} / B = p

Then A = ?

i. BP = 10

ii. B = 40 and P = ¼

98. If A and B are consecutive positive integers, is A greater than B?

i. A – 1 and B + 1 are consecutive positive integers

ii. A is an even integer

99. Amit and Sumit sold housy tickets to raise money for their newly formed club. If Amit and Sumit sold a total of 100 tickets, how many tickets did Amit sell?

i. Amit sold 2/3 as many housy tickets as Amit did

ii. Sumit sold 8% of all the tickets sold for their club.

100. How many persons are employed by Nagarjuna Finance?

i. If 3 additional persons are employed by Nagarjuna Finance and all the present employees remain, there will be at least 20 employees in the company.

ii. If no additional persons are employed by Nagarjuna Finance and 3 of the present employees resign, there will be fewer than 15 employees in the company.

101. If X, Y and Z are integers, is X – Y + Z greater than X + Y – Z?

i. Y is negative

ii. Z is positive

102. If A + 2B + 1 = B – A, then A = ?

i.
B^{2} = 9

ii. B = 3

103. If X is an integer, then X is divisible by how many positive integers?

i. X is the product of two different prime numbers

ii.
X and 2^{3} are each divisible by the same
number of positive integers.

104. How many kilometers long is the route from Durgapur to Bishnupur?

i. It will take 1 hour less time to travel the entire route at an average rage of 55 km/hour than at an average rate of 50 km/hour.

ii. It will take 11 hours to travel the first half of the route at an average rate of 25 km /hour.

105. A handkerchief and a pair of socks cost a total of Rs. 41.70. How much does the pair of socks cost?

i. The handkerchief costs twice as much as the socks.

ii. The handkerchief costs Rs. 27.80

106. If M and N are positive, what is the value of M?

i. M = 3,927N

ii. N = 2.279

107. If X and Y are positive integers, then what percent of Y is X?

i. X = (3/4) Y

ii. X/Y = 75/100

108. In a triangle ABC, If AB = a, BC = a + 2 and AC = b, then which of the 3 angles of the triangle ABC is greatest?

i. B = a + 3

ii. A = 2

109. If Sourav’s total yearly expenditure for magazines, weeklies and newspapers is Rs. 35000, then what is the expenditure for magazines?

i. The expenditure for newspapers is 40% greater than the expenditure for weeklies and newspapers is 25% less than the expenditure for magazines.

110. Refer to the following figure

If x and y represent the length and width, respectively, of the rectangle above, what is its perimeter?

i. 2 x + y = 40

ii. x + y = 25

111. Refer to the following figure

If AB is Parallel to CD, a =?

i. b = 120

ii. c = 60

112. How many magazines are sold at the shop ‘Walden’ today?

i. A total of 100 magazines were sold at Walden yesterday, 10 fewer than twice the number sold today.

ii. The number of magazine sold at Walden yesterday ws 45 more than the number sold today.

113. If A, B and C are positive, is A = √B /C?

i. C = B/(AC)

ii. C = √B / A

114. Refer to the following figure?

In the triangle ABC, does BC2 + CA2 = AB2?

i. A + b = 90

ii. A = b

115. In a college election, Suravi and Sujay are contesting for thepost of General Secretary. If the total number of voters is 950, what percent of female students voted for Sujay?

i. 80% of the female students voted for Suravi

ii. 60% of the male students voted for Sujay.

**
Vocabulary and Writing Skills**

**Directions:** For Questions 116-125 tick the word or phrase which is
nearest in meaning to the word or phrase in capital letters.

116. IMPELLER

a. Locking mechanism

b. Wrench

c. Outlet

d. Rotor blade

117. GOUGE

a. To scoop out

b. Stuff

c. Plaster

d. Measure

118. EPOXY

a. Patch

b. Joint

c. Paint thinner

d. Synthetic resin

119. TRANSVERSE

a. Oblique

b. Length –wise

c. Cross-wise

d. Perpendicular

120. GROMMET

a. Groove

b. Imaginary creature that causes mechanical break-downs

c. Eyelet or small howl

d. Wall hook

121. CORRODE

a. To rust

b. File down

c. Cleanse

d. Turn brown

122. SPROCKET

a. Chain

b. Wrench

c. Toothlike point

d. Brake

123. IATROGENIC

a. Genetic

b. Affecting the sight

c. Doctor-induced

d. Environmental

124. SUPINE

a. Kneeling

b. Relaxed

c. Lying on one’s back

d. Of highest quality

125. GAFFE

a. A short musical instrument

b. Chatter

c. Blunder

d. Joke

**
Directions:** For Questions 126-135 choose the word or phrase that is most
nearly opposite in meaning to the word or phrase in capital letters

126. CRESTFALLEN

a. Lamented

b. Insulted

c. Elated

d. Inebriated.

127. PRAISE

a. Compose

b. Secrete

c. Revile

d. Awake

128. PURE

a. Immoral

b. Liquid

c. Immature

d. Adulterated

129. UNFAVORABLE

a. Clandestine

b. Adjacent

c. Propitious

d. Contentious

130. PRECEDE

a. Arbitrate

b. Litigate

c. Delay

d. Ensue

131. DEFLATE

a. Prolong

b. Commence

c. Distend

d. Prevent

132. PERMANENT

a. Desultory

b. Obsequious

c. Spontaneous

d. Transient

133. HUMILITY

a. Hubris

b. Apathy

c. Impiety

d. Insouciance

e. Prevent

134. ANTICIPATION

a. Deliberation

b. Introversion

c. Gregariousness

d. Retrospection

135. SPEAK PURPOSEFULLY

a. Maintain Silence

b. Seek Consensus

c. Maunder

d. Evade Entanglement

**
Direction:** For Questions 136-144 select the lettered pairs of words
which are related in the same way as the capital words are related to each
other.

136. WOOD : GRAIN

a. Book : Text

b. Wool : Silk

c. Line : Flax

d. Cloth : Texture

137. LOCUSTS : HOLOCAUST

a. Television : Dial

b. Train : Car

c. Bruise : Pain

d. Explosion : Debris

138. PAT : SLAP

a. Bing : Bang

b. Tepid : Hot

c. Topple : Tumble

d. Winter : Summer

139. DEARTH : SURPLUS

a. Encourage : Restrict

b. Heart : Soul

c. Gain : Success

d. Seeing : Believing

140. WINDS : HURRICANE

a. Water : Alcohol

b. Sky : Universe

c. Thunder : Lightning

d. Clouds : Rain

141. GROUP : HERMIT

a. Hamlet : Macbeth

b. Debate : Soliloquy

c. Crowd : Mob

d. Thunder : Lightning

142. INFANT : CHILD

a. Black : White

b. Adult : Child

c. Girl : Woman

d. Student : Teacher

143. SOCIETY : CONFORMITY

a. Report card : Marks

b. Underworld : Gangster

c. Pupil : Dean

d. School : Discipline

144. Doctor Sickness

a. Chief : Boss

b. Minister : Politician

c. Policeman : Government

d. Court : Justice

**Directions:** Questions 145-154 consist of a number of sentences, in
each of which some part or the whole is underlined. Each sentence is
followed by four alternative versions of the underlined portion. Select an
alternative you consider both most correct and most effective according to
the requirements of standard written English. Answer (a) is the same as the
original version, if you think the original version is best select answer
(a).

In considering the answer choices be attentive to matters of grammar, diction, and syntax, as well as clarity, precision, and fluency. Do not select an answer which alters the meaning of the original sentence.

145.
Most victims of infectious tuberculosis recover after
a few months of suffering, __but an unlucky few may suffer for years.__

a. But an unlucky few may suffer for years

b. And an unlucky few have suffered

c. That an unlucky few may suffer

d. But a few who, being unlucky, suffered.

146.
More than four thousland years ago, ancient Indian
scientists accurately described the process of plastic surgery, __but went__
unnoticed in the West.

a. But it went

b. Although it was

c. But it was

d. But the discovery went

147.
Several ministers spoke to the press on condition __
that they not be named__ in the write up.

a. That they not be named

b. Of not being named

c. That their names would not be used

d. That their names are not used.

148.
Analysts opine __that the statistics for average per
capita income and unemployment show as wide__ a discrepancy as ever.

a. That the statistics for average per capita income and unemployment show as wide

b. The average per capita income and unemployment figures show as wide

c. That the average per capita income and unemployment figures are showing as wide

d. Of figures for average per capita income and unemployment showing as wide.

149.
Crows will be under observation in order to obtain
information about __their foraging habits and sites where they nest.__

a. Their foraging habits and sites where they nest.

b. Their foraging habits and nesting sites

c. Its foraging habits and sites in which they have their nests

d. Foraging habits and sites in which they have their nest.

150.
__Unlike their counterparts in other European
countries the Spanish labour movement has never __embraced revolutionary
ideologies.

a. Unlike their counterparts in other European countries the Spanish labour movement has never

b. Unlike that of their counterparts in other European countries, the Spanish labour movement has never

c. Unlike its counterparts in other European countries, the Spanish labour movement has never

d. Unlike that of its counterparts in other European countries the Spanish labour movement has never.

151.
Bagha Jatin Museum was the first public museum in
Durgapur __while earlier this has been the first truly public library.__

a. While earlier this has been

b. Where this earlier is

c. Just as earlier this had been

d. This earlier being

152.
__Plausible though it sounds, the weakness of the
hypothesis __ is that is very superficial

a.
__Plausible though it sounds, the weakness of the
hypothesis__

b.
__Though plausible, the hypothesis’s weakness__

c.
__Though the hypothesis sounds plausible, its
weakness__

d.
__The weakness of the hypothesis which sounds
plausible.__

153.
Some prominent factors have __altered the investment
strategies of the domestic companies more radically than those of__ their
foreign counterparts.

a. Altered the investment strategies of the domestic companies more radically than those of

b. Altered the investment strategies of domestic companies more radically than

c. Radically altered the investment strategies of domestic companies more than

d. Altered the investment strategies of domestic companies more radically than they have

154.
__The supply of iron-ore being finite has become an
economical __and political consideration of the first magnitude for all
industrially developed countries.

a. The supply of iron-ore being finite has become an economical

b. The finite supply of iron-ore is finite has become an economical

c. That the supply of iron-ore is finite has become an economical

d. The supply of iron-ore being finite has become an economic

**
Analytical Reasoning**

155. Dreams Unlimited Corporation buys free-trafvel coupons from people who are awarded the coupons by Eros Airlines for flying frequently in Eros. Those coupons are sold to people who pay less for the coupons than they would pay be purchasing air ticket from Eros. This type of marketing of coupons results in loss of revenue for Eros.

To discourage this type of buying and selling of free travel coupons, Eros Airlines should restrict the

a. Total number of free-travel coupons that a particular person can be awarded in a particular year.

b. Days on which those coupons can be used

c. Amount of time that those coupons can be used after they are issued

d. Use of such coupons to those persons who were awarded the free-travel coupons and their family members.

156. Pankaj overslept. Therefore, he did not eat breakfast. He realize that he was late for school, so he ran as fast as he could and did not see a hole in the ground which was in his path. He tripped and broke his ankle. He was then taken to the hospital and while lying in bed was visited by his friend, who wanted to know why he gad got up so late.

Which of the following conclusions can be made from the above passage?

a. Pankaj’s friend visited him in the hospital because he wanted to know why he was late for school.

b. Because Pankaj did not eat his breakfast, he broke her ankle.

c. Pankaj broke his ankle because he went to bed late the previous night

d. Pankaj did not notice the hole because he overslept.

157. Unless new reserves are found soon, the world’s supply of iron is being depleted in such a way that with demand continuing to grow at present rates, reserves will be exhausted by the year 2090. Which of the following can be inferred from the statement?

a. It has been known for many years that there are vast stocks of iron in Russia which have yet to be economically exploited.

b. There has been a slowdown in the rate of increase in world demand for iron over the last 5 years from 20% to 15%.

c. As iron resources are depleted more and more marginal supplies which are more costly to produce and less efficient in use are being mined.

d. None of the above

158. National Insurance Company intends to come with a new policy covering services required by aged citizens suffering form diseases. Premiums for such a policy should be kept low enough to appeal to such group of customers. Hence, National Insurance is concerned that the income from such policies would not be sufficient enough to pay the claims.

Which of the following strategies would be most likely to minimize National’s losses on the policies?

a. To attract middle-aged customers who are unlikely to submit claims for benefits for many years.

b. To insure only those individuals who had never suffered any serious diseases in their childhood.

c. To insure only those people who are solvent enough to pay for the medical services

d. To insure only those people who were earlier rejected by other companies for similar policies.

Questions 159 and 160 are based on the following.

The average life expectancy for the Indian populations a whole is 53.9 years, but children born in Shimla live an average of 57 years, and those born in Lucknow, 51.7 years. If a newly wed couple from Lucknow are to begin their family in Shimla, therefore, their children would be expected to live longer than that would be the case if the family remained in Lucknow.

159. Which of the following statements, if true, would most seriously weaken the conclusion drawn in the write up?

a. Insurance company analysts do not belive that moving to Simla will significantly lengthen the average life expectancy of an inhabitant of Lucknow.

b. The Mayor of Lucknow has falsely alleged that statistics for his city are inaccurate.

c. The longevity ascribed to Simla’s current population is attributable mostly to genetically determined factors.

d. 30% of the inhabitants of Lucknow can expect to live longer than 57 years.

160. Which of the following statements, if true, would most significantly strengthen the conclusion drawn in the passage?

a. As population density in Shimla would increase, life expectancy would automatically decrease

b. Environmental factors tending to favor longevity are abundant in Shimla and less favourable in Lucknow.

c. 25% of all the inhabitants of Lucknow who move to Shimla live longer than 57 years.

d. Over the last 10 years, average life expectancy has risen at a higher rate for inhabitants of Lucknow that for inhabitants of Shimla.

161. Which of the following best completes the passage below?

When somebody buys a premium product, status symbol is one of the primary considerations. Mass marketing techniques and price – reduction strategies should not be used in the premium segment because….

a. Rich purchasers presently represent a shrinking portion of thepopulation of all purchasers.

b. Continued sales depend directly on continuous maintaining of an aura of exclusivity

c. Manufacturing a premium product is not always more costly than manufacturing a regular product

d. Expanding market niche to include a broader spectrum of purchasers will increase profits.

162. Pioneers of the two-wheeler industry realized that if they were going to meet the growing demand for their product, they had to adapt the labor force used in the productive process. Instead of many men working to complete all the stages of one vehicle at a time, they assigned defined tasks to each man which they would repeat on every vehicle.

Which of the following can be concluded from the passage?

a. The workers became disgruntled because they were assigned monotonous, repetitive tasks on the assembly line.

b. Early two-wheeler manufacturers intended to increase productivity by applying the principle of division of labor.

c. Economies of scale enabled early two-wheeler companies to expand.

d. A bad worker would perform the same task badly on each vehicle, leading to many more rejects.

163. The average normal infant born in India weighs between ten and twelve pounds at the age of two months. Therefore, if a two month old child weighs only eight pounds, its weight gain has been below the Indian average.

Which of the following indicates a flow in the reasoning above?

a. Weight can be one of many measures of normal development of infants.

b. ‘Below average’ need not necessarily means insufficient

c. Average weight gain and average weight are not same

d. It can be possible for a normal infant to weigh eight pounds at birth.

164. Purchasing power of a rural household is more than an urban household at a same income level because a substantial portion of the income an urban household uses for housing can be used by a rural household for other needs.

Which of the following inferences is best supported by the statement made above?

a. A rural household has lower housing cost than an urban household.

b. The median income of urban households is generally higher than that of rural households.

c. An average rural household includes more members than does an average urban household.

d. All households spend more of their income on housing than on all other purchases combined.

165. Only few consumers get much use out of the sports equipment they purchase. For example, 10% of the adults in India own jogging shoes, but only 40% of the owners jog more than once a year, and only 14% jog more than once a week.

Which of the following, if true, casts most doubt on the claim that most consumers get little use out of the sports equipment they purchase?

a. Many consumers purchase jogging shoes for use in activities other than jogging

b. Joggers are more prone to sports injuries during the first 4 months in which they jog.

c. Those joggers who jog more than once a week are often active participants in other sports as well.

d. Consumers who go for jogging more than often purchase an athletic shoe that can be used in other sports.

166. Apple has got more nutritional value than orange. But since citrus fruits have more nutritional value than banana, it follows that apple has more nutritional value than banana.

Which of the following, if introduced into the argument as an additional premise, makes the argument above logically incorrect?

a. Orange has more nutritional value than banana.

b. Orange has more nutritional value than other citrus fruits

c. Orange and all other citrus fruits have same nutritional value.

d. Citrus fruits have more nutritional value than apple.

167. A great number of newspapers are sold in Jamshedpur than in Patna. Therefore, thepeople of Jamshedpur are better informed about major world events than are people of Patna.

Which of the following does not weaken the above conclusion?

a. Most people of Patna work in Jameshedpur and buy their newspaper there.

b. Jamshedpur has a larger population than Patna

c. The average news stand price of newspapers sold in Jameshedpur is lower than the average price of newspapers sold in Patna.

d. A weakly newspaper restricted to the coverage of local events is published in Jamshedpur.

**Questions 168 and 169 are based on the following**

Automation is replacing employees in many companies. However, many workers who are retrenched due to automation will need Government assistance to survive and the same companies that are retrenching people will eventually pay for their assistance through increased taxes.

168. The author is arguing that

a. Companies that are retrenching people will eventually rehire many of them.

b. Replacing people through automation to reduce production costs will result in increases in other costs to companies.

c. Many workers loosing jobs due to automation will have to be retrained for new jobs.

169. Which of the following if true most strengthens the author’s argument?

a. A number of workers who have already lost their jobs due to automation have not been able to find new jobs.

b. Many companies that have not automated have seen their profits decline.

c. Taxes are paid even by those companies that are not automating

d. Initial investment in automation is greater than the short term savings in labor costs in most of the cases.

170. It is said that if murder is a worse crime than blackmail and blackmail is worse crime than theft, how much more so is murder a worse crime than theft.

Which is correct analysis of the above argument?

a. A case that operates under certain conditions will surely be operative in other, situations in which the same conditions are present in a more acute form.

b. A case operating in one situation will also be operative in another situation, if both situations are characterized in identical terms.

c. A case that begins with a generalizatioin as to its intended application, then continues until the specification of particular cases, and then concludes with a restatement of the generalization, can be applied only to the particular cases specified.

d. A case that clearly expresses the purpose it was meant to serve will also apply in other situations in which the identical purpose may be server.

**
Reading Comprehension**

**Read the following passage and answer the given questions.**

In the past, American colleges and universities were created to serve a dual purpose to advance learning and to offer a chance to become familiar with bodies of knowledge already discovered to those who wished it. To create and to impart, these were the hallmarks of American higher education prior to the most recent, tumultuous decades of the twentieth century,. The successful institution of higher learning had never been one whose mission could be defined in terms of providing vocational skills or as a strategy for resolving societal problems. In a subtle way Americans believed postsecondary education to be useful, but not necessarily of immediate use. What the student obtained in college became beneficial in later life-residually, without direct application in the period after graduation.

Another purpose has now been assigned to the mission of American colleges and universities. Institutions of higher learning-public or private-commonly face the challenge of defining their programs in such a way as to contribute to the service of the community.

This service role has various applications. Most common are programs to meet the demands of regional employment markets, to provide opportunities for upward social and economic mobility, to achieve racial, ethnic, or social integration, or more generally to produce “productive” as compared to “educated” graduates. Regardless of its precise definition, the idea of a service university has won acceptance within the academic community.

One need only be reminded of the change in language describing the two year college to appreciate the new value currently being attached to the concept of a service related university. The traditional two year college has shed its “junior” college label and is generally called a “community” college, a clearly value laden expression representing the latest commitment in higher education. Even the doctoral degree, long recognized as required “union card” in the academic world, has come under severe criticism as the pursuit of learning for its own sake and the accumulation of knowledge without immediate application to a professor’s classroom duties. The idea of a college or university that performs a triple function – communicating knowledge to students, expanding the content of various disciplines, and interacting in a direct relationship with society – has been the most important change in higher education in recent years.

This novel development is often overlooked. Educators have always been familiar with those parts of the two year college curriculum that have a service or vocational orientation. Knowing this, otherwise perceptive commentaries on American postsecondary education underplay the impact of the attempt of colleges and universities to relate to, if not resolve, the problems of society. Whether the subject under review is student unrest, faculty tenure, the nature of the curriculum, the onset of collective bargaining, or the growth of collegiate bureaucracies, in each instance the thrust of these discussions obscures the larger meaning of the emergence of the service university in American higher education. Even the highly regarded critique of Clark Kerr, currently head of the Carnegie Foundation, which set the parameters of academic debate around the evolution of the so-called “multiversity”, failed to take account of this phenomenon and the manner in which its fulfillment changed the scope of higher education. To the extent that the idea of “multiversity” centered on matters of scale-how big is too big? How complex is too complex? It obscured the fundamental question posed by the service university: what is higher education supposed to do? Unless the commitment to what Samuel Gould has properly called the “communiversity” is clearly articulated, the success of any college or university in achieving its service education functions will be effectively impaired…

The most reliable report about the progress of Open Admissions became available at the end of August 1947. What the document showed was that the dropout rate for all freshmen admitted in September, 1970, after seven semesters, was about 48 percent, a figure that corresponds closely to national averages at similar colleges and universities. The discrepancy between the performance of regular students (those who would have been admitted into the four year colleges with 80% high school averages and into the two year units with 75%) and Open Admissions freshmen provides a better indication of how the program worked.

Taken together the attrition rate (from known and unknown causes) was 48 percent, but the figure for regular students was 36 percent while for Open Admissions categories it was 56 percent. Suprisingly, the statistics indicated that the four year colleges retained or graduated more of the Open Admissions students than the two year colleges, a finding that did not reflect experience elsewhere. Not surprisingly, perhaps, the figures indicated a close relationship between academic success defined as retention or graduation and high school averages. Similarly, it took longer for the Open Admissions students to generate college credits and graduates than regular students, a important statistics, however, relate to the findings indicated as a projection that perhaps as many as 70 percent would not graduate from a unit of the City University.

171. Which of the following was not a purpose of American higher education in the past?

a. To prepare future managers

b. To train workers

c. To solve societal problems

d. To impart knowledge

172. What was the dropout rate among regular students in Open admission?

a. 68%

b. 56%

c. 48%

d. 36%

173. What was the estimate percentage of Open Admission Students failing to graduate from City University?

a. 70%

b. 60%

c. 50%

d. 40%

174. Which of the following is a recent important change in higher education?

a. Requirements of faculty tenure

b. Representation of students in college boards

c. Updating the curriculum

d. Concepts of service-related education

175. By which of the following was attrition rate for Open Admission greater than that of regular students?

a. 40%

b. 30%

c. 20%

d. 10%

176. Which of the following is aimed by the service role of colleges?

a. To improve services

b. To provide skills for future use

c. To make graduates employable

d. To gain acceptance among educators

177. Which of the following was the average attrition rate for regular and Open Admission students?

a. 66%

b. 56%

c. 46%

d. 36%

178. Which of the following best describe(s) a two-year college?

I. Junior College

II. Service-oriented college

III. Community college

a. Both (I) and (II) of the above

b. Both (I) and (III) of the above

c. Both (II) and (III) of the above

d. All (I), (II) and (III) of the above

179. Clark Kerr could not take account of

a. Service university

b. Tenure of a faculty

c. Bureaucracies in the college

d. Communiversity

180. The doctoral degree is criticized because

a. It is more or less learning for its own sake

b. Long time is taken to complete the degree

c. Expenses are too high for getting a doctoral degree

d. Of social discrimination.

**Key to
Practice Test – 2**

1. d |
2. c |
3. c |
4. b |
5. d |
6. b |
7. c |
8. c |
9. c |
10. b |

11. b |
12. b |
13. c |
14. d |
15. c |
16. d |
17. c |
18. b |
19. d |
20. b |

21. c |
22. d |
23. b |
24. c |
25. c |
26. b |
27. a |
28. d |
29. b |
30. c |

31. c |
32. b |
33. b |
34. d |
35. a |
36. c |
37. b |
38. c |
39. b |
40. d |

41. b |
42. c |
43. d |
44. a |
45. d |
46. c |
47. a |
48. d |
49. c |
50. b |

51. d |
52. d |
53. b |
54. d |
55. c |
56. b |
57. a |
58. c |
59. d |
60. a |

61. d |
62. c |
63. a |
64. d |
65. c |
66. b |
67. a |
68. c |
69. c |
70. d |

71. d |
72. b |
73. d |
74. a |
75. c |
76. b |
77. d |
78. c |
79. d |
80. b |

81. c |
82. b |
83. c |
84. c |
85. b |
86. c |
87. d |
88. a |
89. a |
90. d |

91. c |
92. c |
93. d |
94. d |
95. b |
96. a |
97. d |
98. a |
99. a |
100. c |

101. c |
102. b |
103. d |
104. d |
105. d |
106. c |
107. d |
108. a |
109. b |
110. b |

111. d |
112. a |
113. d |
114. a |
115. a |
116. d |
117. a |
118. d |
119. c |
120. c |

121. a |
122. c |
123. c |
124. c |
125. c |
126. c |
127. c |
128. d |
129. c |
130. d |

131. c |
132. d |
133. a |
134. d |
135. c |
136. d |
137. d |
138. b |
139. a |
140. d |

141. b |
142. c |
143. d |
144. d |
145. a |
146. a |
147. d |
148. c |
149. b |
150. d |

151. a |
152. c |
153. d |
154. a |
155. d |
156. d |
157. d |
158. a |
159. c |
160. b |

161. b |
162. b |
163. c |
164. a |
165. a |
166. d |
167. c |
168. c |
169. a |
170. a |

171. c |
172. d |
173. a |
174. d |
175. c |
176. c |
177. c |
178. c |
179. a |
180. a |